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Hi ;

i have this theorem from the book :Set-valued analysis

Let $(\Omega,\mathcal{A},\mu)$ be a complete $\sigma$-finite measure space , $X$ a complete separable metric space and $G\in\mathcal{A}\times > \mathcal{B}(X)$ . Then it's projection $pr_{\Omega}(G)=\lbrace t\in \Omega > ,\exists x\in X, (t,x)\in G\rbrace \in > \mathcal{A} $

there is a prove of this in the book of Castaing "convexe and measurable multifunction" in chapter 3 but i dont understand it

please help me

Thank you .

share|improve this question
    
Well there is the obvious advice: Try another book! Also: This is not the kind of question that is appropriate for MathOverflow. Consider asking it on other sites like math.stackexchange.com. –  Johannes Hahn Apr 11 '13 at 12:47
    
how i must ask it ? please –  karima Apr 11 '13 at 12:52
    
have you another book ? –  karima Apr 11 '13 at 13:02
1  
A tangential side-note. We see questions from time to time asking why we care if a measure space is complete. Here is one example: this projection result fails in general with an incomplete measure. –  Gerald Edgar Apr 11 '13 at 13:15
1  
About half a year ago I scribbled in my notebooks that the measurable projection theorem can be found in the fourth volume of Fremlin's books. essex.ac.uk/maths/people/fremlin/mt.htm But unfortunately I didn't write down the page number. If you just google the phrase "measurable projection theorem" you will also find a wealth of information. –  Willie Wong Apr 11 '13 at 15:38

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