5
$\begingroup$

Dear group theorists,

Let $n \geq 1$ and $I$ be an infinite set (you may assume $I$ to be countable). Is the abelian group $(\mathbb{Z}/n)^{(I)}$ (direct sum of copies $\mathbb{Z}/n$) a direct summand of $(\mathbb{Z}/n)^I$ (direct product of copies $\mathbb{Z}/n$)? This question is motivated by that one.

If $n$ is prime, this follows from Linear Algebra. Of course, this is not constructive at all. Thus it's also true when $n$ is squarefree (use the Chinese Remainder Theorem). What happens otherwise? The smallest example is $n=4$. I don't know how to start ...

$\endgroup$
0

1 Answer 1

12
$\begingroup$

Yes. The ring ${\mathbb Z}/n {\mathbb Z}$ is injective over itself, and over a Noetherian ring, direct limits of injectives are again injective; thus ${\mathbb Z}/n{\mathbb Z}^{(I)}$ is injective over ${\mathbb Z}/n{\mathbb Z}$. Finally, any embedding of an injective splits, as follows directly from the property of being injective. We can now apply this to the embedding $({\mathbb Z}/n{\mathbb Z})^{(I)} \hookrightarrow ({\mathbb Z}/n{\mathbb Z})^I.$

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you, that's great :). I used Baer's Criterion twice to understand your statements. $\endgroup$ Jan 21, 2010 at 6:29

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.