Let $H$ be a subgroup of lattice-ordered group $G$. $H$ is a lattice-ordered group as a induced partial order from $G$ but $H$ is not a lattice-subgroup of $G$. For $a, b\in H$, let $ c=inf(a, b) \in H$ and let $d= inf(a, b) \in G$. Is it necessary to be $c = d$ or not? Thanks
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No. A counterexample (essentially from Bourbaki's Algèbre VI.1 Exercice 12 a)) is the following. We furnish $\mathbb{Z}$ with its usual structure of ordered group and consider the product of ordered groups $G=\mathbb{Z}^3$. This is a lattice, and for $(x,y,z),(u,v,w)\in G$ we have $$\textstyle\sup_G((x,y,z),(u,v,w))=(\sup(x,u),\sup(y,v),\sup(z,w)).$$ Now we consider the subgroup |
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