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There are many applications of "pairwise", for instance different, disjunct, orthogonal, independent, intersecting, connected, and many more. Some of them like "pairwise intersecting" or "pairwise connected" seem meaningful. But most of them appear to express no more information than with "pairwise" deleted. Who introduced this expression in mathematics in what framework?

edited Feb 5 at 15:47

asked Feb 4 at 7:01

Rhett Butler
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This is basically an English question... – Mariano Suárez-Alvarez Feb 4 at 7:23

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Unoriginally, but frankly, I couldn't give a damn. – Yemon Choi Feb 4 at 7:35

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Judging by a quick search in google scholar and jstor, the phrase "pairwise distinct" may be first due to Leonard Blumenthal. I see LM Blumenthal using this term as early as 1937, so if you are truly curious about its origin, you might start by trying to find something published in 1936 or earlier. Google books had one hit for 1932, but the publication isn't online, so I cannot verify it either way. Mostly, though, I don't think this question belongs here. (And personally I am not invested enough to extend my five minute search.) – Benjamin Dickman Feb 4 at 8:49

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"Pairwise disjoint" and "pairwise relatively prime" are ones very commonly used to remove possible ambiguity: do we mean $\bigcap S_i = \emptyset$ (or gcd$(a_1, \ldots, a_n)$ = 1), or something stronger? I would not say "pairwise distinct" (as in your other question); I'd simply say "let $x_1, \ldots, x_n$ be $n$ distinct elements" -- you'd really have to be perverse to misconstrue that. – Todd Trimble Feb 4 at 10:46

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"But most of them..." You give six examples for two you state there is a difference and for two more there clearly is one as well, namely "disjunct", assuming you mean disjoint, and independent. In any case the question feels like a minor rant. Voted to close. – quid Feb 4 at 12:08

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Pietro Majer · Answer 1 · 2013-02-04 09:11:57Z UTC

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However "distinct" may have the weaker meaning of not all coinciding. So, in case I would therefore use pairwise, for clarity (see e.g. here), like in the other situations you listed.

The fact is that, in lack of a standard agreement on a definition or a notation, people is led to use more specific forms than needed. For instance: some people use $\subset$ for inculsion, some for strict inclusion. Result: some use $\subseteq $ and $\subsetneq $, to avoid any doubt. (Or, I once heard somebody -maybe myself, using the expression, for a topology not stronger than another, weakly weaker ).

answered Feb 4 at 9:11

Pietro Majer
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	@Pietro. There is indeed a notational inconsistency in writing < for strictly less, ≤ for less or equal and ⊂ for contained in. However, the (where-the-hell-does-it-come-from?)- terminology concerning partially ordered set is absolutely ridiculous and confusing. While it may do no harm for totally ordered sets, in the non-totally ordered, it leads to terrible expressions like the one you use: from two topologies, none being stronger than the other, would you say that both are weakly weaker than the other? No, no! This should be avoided. – ACL Feb 4 at 10:13
	(yes, that was indeed said as a joke). As to the notational inconsistency you mentioned, I think a historical/sociological explanation is that in some situations of mathematics, often older, and more linked to the discrete (e.g. well ordered sets and ordinals) irreflexive relations are somehow more important and prior than reflexive ones; on the other hand, in other situations (especially from topology and analysis) reflexive relations are more important for various reasons. So $\subseteq$ for "strict inclusion" is always popular among people in algebra, and for "inclusion" among topologists. – Pietro Majer Feb 4 at 11:26
	@Pietro Majer: in the last sentence is this a typo or does really somebody use $\subseteq$ for (necessarily) strict inclusion? – quid Feb 4 at 11:54
	oh sorry, a typo, yes – Pietro Majer Feb 4 at 12:29
	The discrete topology on a set -- is that called the weakest or the strongest? I can never remember. – Tom Goodwillie Feb 4 at 13:38

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Brendan McKay · Answer 2 · 2013-02-04 09:09:41Z UTC

When something is defined as a binary relation, "pairwise" is strictly-speaking required in order to apply it to a set larger than two. That's one advantage. Another is that in normal English "different" is the opposite of "equal".

That said, I think "pairwise different", and many similar things, are unnecessarily pedantic. If the meaning of "different" is so clear that most mathematicians wouldn't even pause to think about it, we don't need "pairwise".

The earliest appearance I found this 1941 paper of von Neumann, but I bet someone will find it in German much earlier. MathSciNet has 168 uses starting in 1949.

Rhett Butler · Accepted Answer · 2013-02-05 08:31:40Z UTC

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After some pondering about my question (and after finding out that this expression turns up in one of my books) I would like to revise my position a bit: "Pairwise orthogonal" seems redundant, but that may depend on the implicit understanding of quantifiers that have to be added to colloquial speech. "A set of orthogonal vectors" could in principle mean that for every vector there is an orthogonal one. Of course this is not the meaning attached to the word in general in mathematics. But can it be excluded a priori?

Nevertheless my question remains open (until it will be closed): Who invented the word "pairwise" or "paarweise"? I do not believe that Hilbert 1903 was the first, but do not know either and am curious to know it.

answered Feb 5 at 8:31

Rhett Butler
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Who invented the word 'paarweise'? It is an adverb used in all kinds of contexts. Goethe used it, it is in Grimms' dictionarry (19 century), referencing Hederich's dict from mid 18th century...for questions on German go to german.stackexchange.com – quid Feb 5 at 11:35

Thank you. I should have looked there myself. Perhaps my question, implicitly concerning the use in mathematics, will have no final answer. – Rhett Butler Feb 5 at 12:53

Regarding the use in mathematics there would also be the question for what one asks precisely. If somebody would not say "$a_1, \dots , a_n$ pairwise different" but "$a_1, \dots , a_n $ any two of them different" would this qualify; it does not use pairwise but then the initial motivation seemed to be rather the (perceived) redundancy, which is present, than the particular word. – quid Feb 5 at 13:36

The earliest English use of the word 'pairwise' in the OED is by Carlyle in 1831. – HW Feb 5 at 14:02

Then the first use of "pairwise" in mathematical context may be by Gauss: "... oder wenn man sie paarweise so verbindet, dass jede ..." [Carl Friedrich Gauss: "Beiträge zur Theorie der algebraischen Gleichungen", published in 1849 and reprinted in Werke: Band III, Göttingen (1866) p. 84] – Rhett Butler Feb 13 at 21:05

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Who invented the expression “pairwise different” and what is its advantage over “different”

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