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Question: Is there a polynomial map from ℝⁿ to ℝⁿ under which the image of the positive orthant (the set of points with all coordinates positive) is all of ℝⁿ?

Some observations:

My intuition is that the answer must be 'no'... but I confess my intuition for this sort of geometric problem is not very well-developed.

Of course it is relatively easy to show that the answer is 'no' when n=1. (In fact it seems like a nice homework problem for some calculus students.) But I can't seem to get any traction for n>1.

This feels like the sort of thing that should have an easy proof, but then I remember feeling that way the first time I saw the Jacobian conjecture... now I'm wary of statements about polynomial maps of ℝⁿ!

flag	asked Jan 15 2010 at 19:34 Louis Deaett 341●7

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See mathoverflow.net/questions/38868/… for some apparently minimal degree maps when n>1. – jc Sep 16 2010 at 2:24

Mariano Suárez-Alvarez · Accepted Answer · 2010-01-15 19:57:05Z UTC

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The map $z\in\mathbb C\mapsto z^4\in\mathbb C$, when written out in coordinates, is a polynomial map which sends the closed first quadrant to the whole of $\mathbb R^2$---and by considering cartesian products you get the same for $\mathbb R^{2n}=\mathbb C^n$.

Later: as observed in a comment by Charles, this can be turned into a solution for the open quadrant by composing with a translation, as in $z\in\mathbb C\mapsto (z-z_0)^4\in\mathbb C$ with $z_0$ in the open first quadrant.

edited Jan 15 2010 at 19:57

answered Jan 15 2010 at 19:41

Mariano Suárez-Alvarez
30.6k●8●69●155

This yields maps for all even dimensions. Is there a simple answer to the odd-dimensional case? – jc Jan 15 2010 at 19:44

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Yes, because you can use this trick for any pair of coordinates in $\mathbb{R}^n$, regardless of the parity of $n$, and then compose until positivity has been eliminated for all coordinates. – Greg Kuperberg Jan 15 2010 at 19:45

The question asks about the open orthant, not the closed one! – Alberto García-Raboso Jan 15 2010 at 19:48

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Then take $(z-z_0)^4$ and it should be patched, when $z_0$ is in the open first orthant. – Charles Siegel Jan 15 2010 at 19:50

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Thanks very much indeed, this is a great answer! (Now I wonder what can be said about the form of such polynomial maps.) – Louis Deaett Jan 15 2010 at 20:38

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A polynomial map from ℝ^n to ℝ^n mapping the positive orthant onto ℝ^n?

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