MathOverflow is a question and answer site for professional mathematicians. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top


Could anyone explain to me how A and B are the same/different/equivalent?

A = The Siegel-Walfisz Theorem as stated in Wikipedia (this is the statement in Davenport)

B = The Siegel-Walfisz Theorem with the error term replaced by $x/(\log x)^A$ (see, for example, Iwaniec/Kowalski page 124/419)

Thanks very much.

share|cite|improve this question
up vote 4 down vote accepted

Version A is stronger, while Version B is easier to state as it has no condition on $q$.

Version A is usually derived from a result of Page which gives even more information (in terms of possible Siegel zeros). See Corollary 11.17 in Montgomery-Vaughan: Multiplicative number theory I.

share|cite|improve this answer
Ah ok I see. Thanks. – Tomos Parry Dec 26 '12 at 11:34

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.