Let
$$
A_1\twoheadrightarrow
A_2\twoheadrightarrow
A_3\twoheadrightarrow
A_4\twoheadrightarrow
\cdots
$$
be an inductive sequence of **countable** abelian groups, the connecting homomorphisms of which are surjective and **split**, that is, we have embeddings $A_{n+1}\rightarrowtail A_n$ such that the composition $A_{n+1}\rightarrowtail A_n\twoheadrightarrow A_{n+1}$ is the identity for every $n$. This means that $A_{n+1}$ is a direct summand of $A_n$.

Let $\varinjlim A_n$ denote the inductive limit of the system $$ A_1\twoheadrightarrow A_2\twoheadrightarrow A_3\twoheadrightarrow A_4\twoheadrightarrow \cdots $$ and let $\varprojlim A_n$ denote the projective limit of the system $$ A_1\leftarrowtail A_2\leftarrowtail A_3\leftarrowtail A_4\leftarrowtail \cdots. $$ We get an induced map $$ \varprojlim A_n\to\varinjlim A_n. $$ As Zhen Lin has shown in over here, this map need not be surjective. Here is a weaker question:

**Question:**
If we have $\varinjlim A_n=0$, then can we conclude that $\varprojlim A_n=0$?

This would, of course, follow if the map $\varprojlim A_n\to\varinjlim A_n$ was always injective. Is there any reason to expect this?

[Earlier versions of this question were posted here and here on MSE.]