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Sorry if this is obvious. I'd like to understand why the map

WC(E/Q) -> H^1(Gal(Q/Q), E(Q))

is bijective. Thanks.

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up vote 4 down vote accepted

This should be in chapter 10 of Silverman's AEC (sorry if I'm wrong about this!).

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You're correct. Thanks! –  pmoduli Oct 19 '09 at 1:33
    
See also Bjorn Poonen's course notes math.mit.edu/~poonen/papers/Qpoints.pdf, section 4.5 on twists, which also cites Serre. –  David Zureick-Brown Oct 19 '09 at 1:38
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