Sorry if this is obvious. I'd like to understand why the map
WC(E/Q) > H^1(Gal(Q/Q), E(Q))
is bijective. Thanks.
Sorry if this is obvious. I'd like to understand why the map WC(E/Q) > H^1(Gal(Q/Q), E(Q)) is bijective. Thanks. 


This should be in chapter 10 of Silverman's AEC (sorry if I'm wrong about this!). 

