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Sorry if this is obvious. I'd like to understand why the map

WC(E/Q) -> H^1(Gal(Q/Q), E(Q))

is bijective. Thanks.

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1 Answer 1

up vote 4 down vote accepted

This should be in chapter 10 of Silverman's AEC (sorry if I'm wrong about this!).

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You're correct. Thanks! – pmoduli Oct 19 '09 at 1:33
See also Bjorn Poonen's course notes, section 4.5 on twists, which also cites Serre. – David Zureick-Brown Oct 19 '09 at 1:38

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