In the IID case, it is known that all order statistics are positively correlated.* Thus, we know that $$\text{Cov}(X_{(i)},X_{(j)}) \geq 0.$$ Is this known in the INID (independent, non-identically distributed) case? If it is not known, how could this be proved? If it does not seem true, what would be a counter-example?

- E.g., see Bickel (1967), "Some contributions to the theory of order statistics"