Let $\mathcal{X}$ be a vector space, $| \cdot |$ and $\| \cdot \|$ be two norms on which $\mathcal{X}$ is complete with respect to both. Can the two norms be not equivalent? Please just give me some hint, I want to be able to do it myself. Thx!
Remember to vote up questions/answers you find interesting or helpful (requires 15 reputation points)
|
-1
|
|||||||
|
closed as not a real question by Bill Johnson, Qiaochu Yuan, Deane Yang, Chris Godsil, algori Oct 7 at 0:39 |
|
0
|
Take a look at this article: From the abstract: "[...] on an infinite dimensional Banach space one can always construct infinitely many mutually non-equivalent complete norms". |
||||||||
|
You can accept an answer to one of your own questions by clicking the check mark next to it. This awards 15 reputation points to the person who answered and 2 reputation points to you.
|
0
|
Take $\mathcal{X}=\ell_1(\mathbb{N})$. Then $\mathcal{X}$ is complete under $\ell_1$ and $\ell_\infty$, while the two norms are not equivalent. |
|||||||||||||||
|

