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Would you please help me to understand the proof of the equivalence

"Lipschitz functions and $W^{1,\infty}$"

in the page294 of Evans' book?

My question is about this line

$D_i^{-h_k}u\rightharpoonup v_i$ weakly in $L^2_{loc}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ ?

Thank you.

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 Please see mathoverflow.net/howtoask It is IMHO somewhat rude not to even give the necessary context to understand the question -- are readers expected to have "Evans's book" on their shelves? – Yemon Choi Sep 29 at 5:57
This is an application of Banach-Alaoglu. – Christopher A. Wong Sep 29 at 11:00

closed as not a real question by Bill Johnson, Michael Renardy, Yemon Choi, Misha, unknown (google) Sep 29 at 22:52

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