0

If property (P) holds for perfect graphs and almost all graphs does it hold for all graphs?

flag
6 
Perhaps I misunderstood... How about the property "G is perfect or has at least 20 vertices"? – Goldstern Sep 21 at 11:31
@Goldstern: Obviously this is not the kind of property I had in mind, but you have a good point there. I was thinking of things like Hadwiger's conjecture. – Felix Goldberg Sep 21 at 12:11
1 
Take one non-perfect graph of each (large enough) order and define the property as being not equal to that chosen graph. You need to work on your question a lot before it makes sense. – Brendan McKay Sep 21 at 12:53
Or then again, take any property which have a finite number of exceptions, each of them a non perfect graph. – Olivier Sep 21 at 17:30

Your Answer

Get an OpenID
or

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.