There is a standard map $T: Mod(S) \rightarrow Sp(2g, \mathbb{Z})$ from the mapping class group of a surface to the symplectic group (where a mapping class goes to its action on the first homology group of $S.$) The question is: is it reasonable to refer to this map $T$ as The Torelli Map?
Remember to vote up questions/answers you find interesting or helpful (requires 15 reputation points)
|
1
|
||||||||||||||||||||
|

