# Geometric Measure Theory On Euclidean Spaces

Dear all,

I have recently found the following discussion: Different Measures On R2 regarding different boundary measures on $\mathbb{R}^n$ .

Is there any example in the opposite direction?

i.e. an example of a set $A \subseteq \mathbb{R} ^n$ such that $Leb^+ (A) > H^{n-1} (\partial A)$ ?

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Take $[0,1]\times \{0\} \subset \mathbb{R}^2$.

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Dear @Tapio: Thanks for your answer, but I don't think I understand it: We have $H^1(\partial [0,1]\times0 )=H^1([0,1]\times0 ) = 1$ . But I can't understand how to calculate the minkowski's content of this thing- $Leb ( [0,1] \times 0 ) = 0$ since we are in $\mathbb{R}^2$ . But what is the Lebesgue measure of an $\epsilon$ extension of this thing? Thanks ! –  Jeremy Young Jul 23 '12 at 6:57
@Jeremy, $\mathop{Leb}^+=2$. –  Anton Petrunin Jul 23 '12 at 7:53
@Anton: Can you please explain this calculation? Thanks! –  Jeremy Young Jul 23 '12 at 11:24
@Jeremy: An $\epsilon$ extension of that set is very simple, and the computation of its area is completely elementary. Just draw a picture of it. –  Mark Meckes Jul 23 '12 at 12:14
@Mark: I agree that an $\epsilon$ extension of this set is pretty simple to calculate in the $\mathbb{R}$ case (and it's equal to $2\epsilon$ there indeed, which gives $Leb^+ =2$ as you said. But since we're looking at the $\mathbb{R}^2$ case, the $\epsilon$ extension we are looking at is actually some kind of an ellipse, which I have no idea how to calculate its volume. I hope I made my misunderstandings clear now. Thanks a lot ! –  Jeremy Young Jul 23 '12 at 15:57
$A=\mathbb{Z}\subset \mathbb R^2$. In this case $\partial\mathbb{Z}= \mathbb{Z}$ and $\mathop{Leb}^+(\mathbb Z)=\infty$ and $H^1(\mathbb Z)=0$.
You can get a bounded example of the same type. Take a countable nowhere dense set $A$ in the unit disc such that the $\varepsilon$-neighborhood of $A$ contains a disc of radius $\sqrt[3]{\varepsilon}$.
But $\partial \mathbb{Q} = \mathbb{R}$. Perhaps you mean $\mathop{Leb}^+(\mathbb Z)=\infty$ and $H^1(\mathbb Z)=0$? –  Tapio Rajala Jul 22 '12 at 19:44
Thanks @Anton, but I was thinking about this question in the context of boundary measures...In this case, since $\partial \mathbb{Z}$ is empty , it doesn't give me an answer. Thanks anyway! –  Jeremy Young Jul 23 '12 at 6:52
@Jeremy, $\partial \mathbb Z=\mathbb Z$. –  Anton Petrunin Jul 23 '12 at 7:46