I am reading a book on curve shortening flow. Optionally, please see this image for the page that is confusing me (I am not allowed to include it in this post since I'm new): http://i.stack.imgur.com/L54lm.png
[Thanks to user Leonid from SE for the image. Page 17 of *The Curve Shortening Problem* by Kai Seng Chou and Xi-Ping Zhu]

The authors construct a map $\mathcal{F}$ from $\tilde{C}^{k+2, \alpha}(S^1 \times (0,t))$ to $\tilde{C}^{k, \alpha}(S^1 \times (0,t))$, find its Frechet derivative and show it's an isomorphism, so we can use the inverse function theorem. They say there exists a $t_0$, $\epsilon$ and $\delta$ such that for any $f$ with $\lVert f - \mathcal{F}(v) \rVert < \epsilon $ there exists a unique $u$ such that $\lVert u - v \rVert < \delta$ and $\mathcal{F}(u) = f$ for all $t \leq t_0$.

**I am confused about the part they say that "there exists a $t_0$ ... such that $\mathcal{F}(u) = f$ for all $t \leq t_0$". How does this time dependence come into this from the inverse function theorem?**

The inverse function theorem I know doesn't state anything about this time dependence. The proof is confusingly written (for me anyway). If they fix the space to be $\tilde{C}^{k, \alpha}(S^1 \times (0,t))$ then how can they only say that the solution exists within a neighbourhood of the $(0,t)$? I thought you don't get control of that, only the space of functions.

Can anyone explain this? Are they using some other theorem? Thanks.