While reading up on quadratic reciprocity, I learned that if $p = 4k+1$ then $-1$ has a square root in $\mathbb{Z} / p \mathbb{Z}$.
Let $r_p$ be an integer with $0\leq r_p < p$ and $r_p^2 \equiv -1 \mod p$. How then is $\frac{r_p}{p} \in \mathbb{Q}$ distributed in $[0,1]$? Naively I would guess this is uniform distribution. How can we prove that?
Edit I noticed in the comments, it might be simpler to ask about the equidistribution of $$\{ \tfrac{1}{\sqrt{p}}(a,b): a^2 + b^2 = p\} \subset S^1$$
still in the case $p = 4k+1$.