1
$\begingroup$

I'm trying to figure out what the transfer map looks like in a specific case. Here's the set up

Let $G$ be a group and $H$ a subgroup of finite index, and let $h_{i}$ for $i=1,..,n$, be coset representatives.

Now following Weibel I know that if $A$ is a $G$ module, then $Tr_{0} :H_{0}(G,A) \rightarrow H_{0}(H,A)$ is the map that sends a 0-cycle $a$ to $\sum_{i} h_{i}.a$. Now theres two things:

the thing is I want to work out what $Tr_{1}: H_{1}(G,A) \rightarrow H_{1}(H,A)$ does specifically, and how does $G$ act on the 1-cycles, since I'm not sure how to define an action on 1-cycles. So I was wondering if I could get some help/hints or maybe some good references, so far I have looked at Weibels intro to homological algebra and a little of Rotmans Homological algebra.

Thank you

Thank you

$\endgroup$
1
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ You should check out Ken Brown's textbook Cohomology of Groups, that's the definitive. A nice way to see the transfer is induced from the covering map of classifying spaces. Namely, if $\sigma$ is a cell of $BG$ then $\sum\tilde{\sigma}$ is a cell of $BH$ (i.e. all the lifts of $\sigma$). Then $Tr$ maps cochain $f$ to the cochain $\sigma\mapsto \sum f(\tilde{\sigma})$. $\endgroup$ Feb 14, 2013 at 19:50

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

In case of trivial coefficients there are nice formulas: Let $G=\coprod_h Hh$ and
$$t: G \to H,\; g \mapsto \prod_h hgh_g^{-1}$$ where the representative $h_g$ is defined by $Hhg=Hh_g$. Under the identification $H_1(G,A)=G_{ab}\otimes A$ we get $$tr_1: G_{ab}\otimes A \to H_{ab}\otimes A,\; g[G,G]\otimes a \mapsto t(g)[H,H] \otimes a$$ (cf. Brown, Cohomology of Groups, III.9, Ex. 2). In case $A=\mathbb{Z}$ this is just the usual transfer homomorphism from group theory (cf. Robinson, Theory of Groups, 10.1).

In cohomology, using the identification $H^1(G,A)=Hom(G,A)$ we have $$tr^1: Hom(H,A) \to Hom(G,A),\; f \mapsto f\circ t.$$

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ I thought that the identification $H_{1}(G,A)=G_{ab} \otimes A$ wasnt always true if $A$ is not $G$-trivial? $\endgroup$ Feb 14, 2013 at 22:21
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, that's why the first sentence is "In case of trivial coefficients ...". $\endgroup$
    – Ralph
    Feb 14, 2013 at 22:37
  • $\begingroup$ Oh sorry I missed that :) $\endgroup$ Feb 15, 2013 at 11:06

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.