User - MathOverflowmost recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-22T09:15:34Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/user/6137http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/56938/what-does-the-adjective-natural-actually-meanWhat does the adjective "natural" actually mean?unknown (google)2011-02-28T23:49:35Z2012-09-13T20:18:25Z
<p>Terms like "in the natural way" or "the natural X" are used frequently in mathematical writing. While it is certainly clear most of the time what is meant, on occasion, I have been confounded. The word "natural" seems to be one of the most ambiguous terms used in formal mathematics. I have never seen anyone actually define it. People just use it and expect others to understand it.</p>
<p>What exactly is meant by "natural" in mathematical writing?</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/57280/numbers-associated-with-boundaries-of-manifoldsNumbers associated with boundaries of manifoldsunknown (google)2011-03-03T19:19:58Z2011-03-31T22:22:20Z
<p>I don't know what name if any is attached to the numbers I'm about to describe.</p>
<p>For a line segment, [a,b]<br>
the number is 1 if for any k in (a,b)<br>
and 2 if k=a or k=b. </p>
<p>For a square, [a,b] cross [c,d],<br>
the number is 1 if k is in the interior<br>
the number is 2 if k is on an edge<br>
the number is 4 if k is a corner </p>
<p>For a cube, [a,b] cross [c,d] cross [e,f],<br>
the number is 1 if k is in the interior<br>
the number is 2 if k is on an face<br>
the number is 4 if k is on an edge<br>
the number is 8 if k is a corner </p>
<p>The concept I'm interested in might change these numbers if the spaces are non-rectangular. So,</p>
<p>For a trapzoid,<br>
the number is 1 if k is in the interior<br>
the number is 2 for the edges<br>
at each corner number the number is inverse of the fraction of the angle of that corner compared to R^2. </p>
<p>Does this ring any bell for names that I can use for searching?</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/57280/numbers-associated-with-boundaries-of-manifolds/57287#57287Answer by unknown (google) for Numbers associated with boundaries of manifoldsunknown (google)2011-03-03T21:04:42Z2011-03-03T21:04:42Z<p>I was calculating the approximate density of a set A (line segment, square, cube, etc) in a ε-neighbourhood of a point x. It's related to the Lebesgue's density theorem. (Actually I was calculating the inverse of these numbers.)</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/29285/in-bayesian-statistics-must-i-use-a-marginalized-prior-in-conjunction-with-a-marIn Bayesian statistics, must I use a marginalized prior in conjunction with a marginalized distribution?//unknown (google)2010-06-23T22:03:29Z2010-07-08T02:22:16Z
<p>Suppose I have some sampling distribution g(x,y,z) which has been marginalized over some variables (say y and z) giving us the marginal distribution which we'll call gx(x).</p>
<p>Suppose I now wish to use Bayes Theorem but on the marginalized distribution to obtain the posterior marginal distribution. Suppose I also know the a good prior for all the variables, call it k(x,y,z).... To use Bayes theorem on the marginalized distribution, must I also marginalize the prior? Or does it makes sense to use the full prior, which of course makes, the answer depend on </p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/60583/how-is-a-n-dimensional-gaussian-distribution-reduced-to-an-n-1-dimensional-distriComment by 2011-04-05T18:29:56Z2011-04-05T18:29:56ZThe other places to ask (math exchange) gave wrong answers. I think it is pretty clear what I am trying to do but here's another way to explain it. Suppose a have a 2D gaussian and one of the variable's (say Y) variance approaches zero, how can I show that the other variable X is described by a 1D normal distribution? That is, in the limit of sigma_Y goes to zero? – unknown (google) 0 secs agohttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/60583/how-is-a-n-dimensional-gaussian-distribution-reduced-to-an-n-1-dimensional-distri/60613#60613Comment by 2011-04-05T18:27:20Z2011-04-05T18:27:20ZThis is nice response. I still think something is missing though. There's no notion of "when" it's okay to use the lower dimensional Gaussian.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/60583/how-is-a-n-dimensional-gaussian-distribution-reduced-to-an-n-1-dimensional-distri/60593#60593Comment by 2011-04-04T18:59:09Z2011-04-04T18:59:09ZNow I'm not so sure. This ALWAYS produces a 1D gaussian from a 2D. Requires not other condition.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/60583/how-is-a-n-dimensional-gaussian-distribution-reduced-to-an-n-1-dimensional-distriComment by 2011-04-04T18:53:32Z2011-04-04T18:53:32ZWhat I'd like to do is say something along the lines that if sigma_Y -> 0, then the distribution for X approaches a gaussian. http://mathoverflow.net/questions/57280/numbers-associated-with-boundaries-of-manifoldsComment by 2011-03-03T20:53:25Z2011-03-03T20:53:25ZHow is it consistent with all my examples? Three out of the four examples aren't even in R^3 so solid angle doesn't even apply. In the lone R^3 example, solid angle only applies for the corners. http://mathoverflow.net/questions/57280/numbers-associated-with-boundaries-of-manifoldsComment by 2011-03-03T20:03:41Z2011-03-03T20:03:41ZI'm only measuring solid angles at the smallest non-empty boundary, not in general.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/57280/numbers-associated-with-boundaries-of-manifoldsComment by 2011-03-03T19:28:00Z2011-03-03T19:28:00ZThe think my question is related to the Lebesgue's density theorem. http://mathoverflow.net/questions/56938/what-does-the-adjective-natural-actually-mean/56956#56956Comment by 2011-03-03T16:12:57Z2011-03-03T16:12:57ZHi, Sandor. Your answer and John Sidles' answer seem to be competing for the #1 spot. I know very little about category theory. I asked Sandor to try to explain your answer in terms of a simple example using a two-dimensional vector space and the "natural" inner product. Another thing that is still confusing me, is that even if there are "natural" choices under category theory, that still requires the reader take category theory as an assumption. If they do no such thing, I suppose it invalidates any formal notion and renders the word having only its "ordinary speech" definition.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/56938/what-does-the-adjective-natural-actually-mean/56948#56948Comment by 2011-03-01T17:38:22Z2011-03-01T17:38:22ZInteresting reply. A follow-up: suppose we were talking about a vector space of 2-tuples, $V$. When people say something like "let $V$ have the natural inner product", we all know it means $a_x b_x+a_y b_y$ but one can go very far in the mathematics and physics literature just assuming natural means "the most common, most Euclidean thing". Could you briefly explain why is the inner product above "natural" in the sense of category theory, expanding on your "arbitrary choice of coordinates should make no difference" comment.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55245/canceling-positive-definite-functions-from-an-integral-that-equals-zeroComment by 2011-02-14T01:41:13Z2011-02-14T01:41:13Z$f = -3x + 100$ and $g= 1x+1$ from -10 to 10 is even nicer, with integer coefficents.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55245/canceling-positive-definite-functions-from-an-integral-that-equals-zeroComment by 2011-02-13T23:22:25Z2011-02-13T23:22:25ZHere's a solution using only lines: $f(x) = -(3/100) x + 1$,
$g(x) = 4 x + 4$ has $\int_{-10}^{10} f(x) g(x) dx = 0$ but $\int_{-10}^{10} g(x) dx = 80$ and $\int_{-10}^{10} f(x) dx = 20$.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55245/canceling-positive-definite-functions-from-an-integral-that-equals-zeroComment by 2011-02-13T21:34:05Z2011-02-13T21:34:05ZI realized shortly before my last update, that this wasn't even the question I wanted to ask, I had intended to write if <i>both</i> f(x) and g(x) are greater than zero except on boundary, a question which if the answer is false would require a bizarre solution that stretches the imagination. It was a long day yesterday, I had that case in mind even while writing exactly the opposite above.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55245/canceling-positive-definite-functions-from-an-integral-that-equals-zeroComment by 2011-02-13T00:13:32Z2011-02-13T00:13:32ZIt's the second mean value theorem that is most relevant so far. Unfortunately, f seems to require certain monotonicity properties even in one-dimension.
A counter example is f(x) = 1 + 16 Delta(x+9) and g(x)=1 for x>-8 and g(x)=-1 for x<-8.
A construction can be done without the delta function, or even discontinuous functions. Yuck.