User ant emyy lee - MathOverflowmost recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-24T09:40:03Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/user/3692http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/19014/finding-questions-between-functional-analysis-and-set-theoryFinding questions between functional analysis and set theoryAnt emyy Lee2010-03-22T14:05:20Z2013-04-18T23:33:01Z
<p>Are there some good questions on functional analysis whose solution depends on tools in set theory? My major is mathematical logic, I think tools in set theory, especially infinity combinatorics and forcing, should be used to solve some questions in functional analysis. For functional analysis, I just have read the main part of Conway's textbook. In this book, I have not found such questions.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/14883/a-question-about-diagonal-prikry-forcinga question about diagonal prikry forcingAnt emyy Lee2010-02-10T09:39:26Z2013-03-29T13:13:12Z
<p>Suppose <\kappa_n|n<\omega> is a strictly increasing sequence of measurable cardinals, </p>
<p>\kappa is the limit of this sequence. For each n<\omega, U_n is a normal measure on </p>
<p>\kappa_n. P is the diagonal Prikry forcing corresponding to \kappa_n's and U_n's.
Suppose g is P-generic sequence over V. We have known that for each strictly increasing </p>
<p>sequence x of length \omega such that each x(i)<\kappa_i and x\in{V}, x is eventually </p>
<p>dominated by g. In V[g], suppose A is a subset of \kappa, A is not in V. Is there a strictly </p>
<p>increasing sequence y of length \omega such that each y(i)<\kappa_i and y\in{V[A]}, y is not </p>
<p>eventually dominated by g?</p>
<p>(g can eventually dominate all such sequences in V, V[A] is greater than V, I feel g can not </p>
<p>eventually dominate all such sequences in V[A].)</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68533/on-the-independence-of-the-kurepa-hypothesisOn the independence of the Kurepa HypothesisAnt emyy Lee2011-06-22T16:38:52Z2011-07-31T18:34:37Z
<p>Kurepa Hypothesis says there is a Kurepa tree, which is a $\omega_1$-tree has at least $\omega_2$ many branches.
It is known that beginning from a model with an inaccessible cardinal $\kappa$, after collapes $\kappa$ to $\omega_2$ using the Levy collape, then in the generic extension, Kurepa Hypothesis fails.
In above generic extension, $\omega_2$ is equal to $\kappa$ and by a counting argument for nice names, $2^{\omega_1}=\omega_2$. My question is that "is it consistent that Kurepa Hypothesis fails and $2^{\omega_1}>\omega_2$?"
(The reason I think this question: The biggest possible value of the number of branches is $2^{\omega_1}$, so in the environment of $2^{\omega_1}=\omega_2$, it is most difficult for the living of a Kurepa tree. So I want to know whether this requiement is necessary.)</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/13773/a-question-on-ultrapowerA question on ultrapowerAnt emyy Lee2010-02-02T02:13:05Z2010-02-11T00:17:33Z
<p>Suppose $\kappa_0$ is a measurable cardinal and $\mu_0$ is a normal measure on $\kappa_0$. $M_1$ is the transitive collapse of $Ult(V,\mu_0)$, $j_{0,1}:V\rightarrow{M_1}$ is the elementary embedding induced by the ultrapower. In $M_1$, $\kappa_1=j_{0,1}(\kappa_0)$ is a measurable cardinal and $\mu_1$ is a normal measure on $\kappa_1$ in $M_1$ such that $\mu_1$ is not in the range of $j_{0,1}$. $M_2$ is the transitive collapse of $Ult(M_1,\mu_1)$, $j_{1,2}:M_1\rightarrow{M_2}$ is the elementary embedding induced by the ultrapower. $j_{0,2}=j_{1,2}\circ{j_{0,1}}$.</p>
<p>Is it true that: ``Suppose $N$ is an inner model, $i:V\rightarrow{N}$ and $k:N\rightarrow{M_2}$ are elementary embeddings such that $k\circ{i}=j_{0,2}$. Then $k''N=j_{0,2}''V$ or $k''N=j_{1,2}''M_1$ or $k''N=M_2$''?</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68533/on-the-independence-of-the-kurepa-hypothesis/68538#68538Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2011-06-24T14:12:32Z2011-06-24T14:12:32ZI find a paper:
Random trees under CH
James Hirschorn
Israel Journal of Mathematics, 2007, Volume 157, Number 1, Pages 123-153
I just read its abstract, he says there is a model of $\neg{KH}$, and we can add many random reals and preserve $\neg{KH}$.
But I think $Add(\omega,\omega_1)$ does not add Kurepa tree over Silver model is also a question.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68533/on-the-independence-of-the-kurepa-hypothesisComment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2011-06-24T05:00:14Z2011-06-24T05:00:14ZI see it.Thanks.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68533/on-the-independence-of-the-kurepa-hypothesis/68538#68538Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2011-06-23T07:32:02Z2011-06-23T07:32:02ZThank you for your answer, Joel. Another thing is unknown for me:
In Silver's model, no new real has been added, and inaccessible $\kappa$ is collaped to $\omega_2$, so Continumm hypothesis holds in this model. But if adding some Cohen reals to this model, maybe some new Kurepa tree are created. This should be my second question: is it consistent that "Kurepa hypothesis fails and $2^{\omega_1}>\omega_2$ and $2^{\omega}>\omega_1$"?http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68533/on-the-independence-of-the-kurepa-hypothesisComment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2011-06-23T05:10:45Z2011-06-23T05:10:45Zsorry,I do not know what is community wiki. So I just choose it.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/19014/finding-questions-between-functional-analysis-and-set-theory/19015#19015Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-03-22T14:48:01Z2010-03-22T14:48:01ZThank you for your solution. Axiom of choice or transfinite induction, I think, they are general tools in math, but not just in logic.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/19014/finding-questions-between-functional-analysis-and-set-theory/19017#19017Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-03-22T14:44:49Z2010-03-22T14:44:49ZThis book should be what I was searching for. Thank you.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/19014/finding-questions-between-functional-analysis-and-set-theory/19016#19016Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-03-22T14:32:24Z2010-03-22T14:32:24Zen. This is a good example. Also, do you know any questions as this style which is still open now?http://mathoverflow.net/questions/13773/a-question-on-ultrapower/13795#13795Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-02-11T06:53:36Z2010-02-11T06:53:36ZThank you for your astonishing solution.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/14883/a-question-about-diagonal-prikry-forcingComment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-02-11T02:52:12Z2010-02-11T02:52:12ZThis forcing has Prikry property. Similarly to Prikry forcing, if \kappa is the limit of this measurable cardinal, then this forcing does not add any new bounded subset of \kappa. This forcing appears in the chapter "Prikry-type forcing" of Handbook of set theory written by Moti Gitik. It is in the section 1.3 of this chapter.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/14883/a-question-about-diagonal-prikry-forcingComment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-02-11T02:47:49Z2010-02-11T02:47:49Zyes. I mean for every A, such that A\subseteq{\kappa} and A\notin{V}, there is such a sequence in V[A] not dominated by g. http://mathoverflow.net/questions/14883/a-question-about-diagonal-prikry-forcing/14932#14932Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-02-11T02:43:17Z2010-02-11T02:43:17ZMaybe I did not say clearly. You find an A, there is a sequence in V[A], g can not eventually dominate it. But I want to know whether for every A such that A\subseteq{\kappa} and A\notin{V}, there is such a sequence in V[A] not dominated by g.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/14883/a-question-about-diagonal-prikry-forcingComment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-02-10T16:50:17Z2010-02-10T16:50:17ZHi. Every condition of P is a ordered pair (s,F). s is a strictly increasing finite sequence such that each s(i)<\kappa_i. F is a function, dom(F)=\omega, for each i<\omega, F(i)\in{U_i}. (s,F) and (t,H) are two conditions. (s,F) is stronger than (t,H) means: (i) s end extends t; (ii) for each i<\omega, F(i) is a subset of H(i); (iii) for each i, if |t|\leqslant{i}<|s|, s(i)\in{H(i)}.
Also, I do not know whether this forcing should be called ``diagonal prikry forcing''.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/13773/a-question-on-ultrapower/13795#13795Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-02-03T03:20:28Z2010-02-03T03:20:28Z
So the model-theoretic fact you said in your answer may not make sense in this case, since $\mu_1$ is not a normal measure in $V$. How to deal with this case?http://mathoverflow.net/questions/13773/a-question-on-ultrapower/13795#13795Comment by Ant emyy LeeAnt emyy Lee2010-02-03T03:20:13Z2010-02-03T03:20:13ZI am the student exchange you with email, you introduce me to go here, so I register this new name.
In my question, I require $\mu_1$ is not in the range of $j_{0,1}$, i.e. the second step of the iterated ultrapower is done by a normal measure not in $j_{0,1}''V$. For example, suppose $\kappa$ has $\kappa$ many normal measures <U_\alpha:\alpha<\kappa>, the first step of the iterated ultrapower I use $U_0$, and the second step of the iteration, I use the \kappa-th measure in the sequence j_{0,1}(<U_\alpha:\alpha<\kappa>) .