User alan wilder - MathOverflowmost recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-06-20T01:41:35Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/user/11300http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/68470/mapping-into-a-geometric-realizationMapping into a geometric realization.Alan Wilder2011-06-22T02:28:20Z2011-06-22T02:28:20Z
<p>Suppose $S$ is a simplicial set, $X$ is a space, and we are given a map
<code>\[
f: \text{Sing}\,X\to S.
\]</code>
When is is possible to produce a map $X\to |S|$?</p>
<p>We can take the realization of $f$, to get $|f|:|\text{Sing}\;X|\to |S|$, and then
the question becomes: when does $|f|$ factor through the counit map $|\text{Sing}\;X|\to X$ (at least up to homotopy)?</p>
<p>It does if $X$ is a CW-complex, which is not the case for my example. What about if $S$ is a Kan complex? Does that help, or are the properties of $X$ really the key here?</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68027/embeddings-of-vector-spacesEmbeddings of vector spacesAlan Wilder2011-06-17T04:06:24Z2011-06-17T08:23:09Z
<p>Let $V$ be an $n$-dimensional vector space. Is the space of embeddings
<code>\[
\coprod_1^{k} V \to V
\]</code>
path connected for large enough $n$? Clearly $n=1$ is not enough, but I feel like $n=2$ is enough for $1$-connected. Does the space become highly connected as $n\to \infty$? This feels like it is equivalent to a question about the little disks operads, but I don't know how to frame it as such.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/67083/reference-request-lax-endsReference Request: Lax EndsAlan Wilder2011-06-06T20:19:01Z2011-06-07T20:38:55Z
<p>I've read in a few different places that the standard fact
<code>\[
\text{Nat}\,(F,G) \cong \int_x \text{Hom}\,(Fx,Gx)
\]</code>
can be upgraded to
<code>\[
\textbf{LaxNat}\,(F,G) \cong \oint_x\textbf{Hom}\,(Fx,Gx)
\]</code>
Where the left hand side is the category of lax natural transformations and modifications, and the right hand side is a lax end.</p>
<p>I am looking for a reference that gives the definition of lax end and proves this equivalence. I do know of the reference</p>
<p>S. Bozapalides, Th<code>\'{e}</code>orie formelle des bicat<code>\'{e}</code>gories</p>
<p>but I can't read French and I also can't find a copy. If someone can link me to the Bozapalides reference would be great. Or even better would be if there is a reference in English. Thanks!</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/66939/pseudofunctors-and-pseudonatural-transformationspseudofunctors and pseudonatural transformationsAlan Wilder2011-06-05T05:13:58Z2011-06-05T19:49:07Z
<p>Based on the discussion <a href="http://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/transfor" rel="nofollow">here</a>
I feel like there should be a bijection between pseudonatural transformations of pseudofunctors $J\to\mathcal{C}$ and pseudofunctors $J\times [1]\to\mathcal{C}$, at least morally ($[1]$ denotes the poset 0<1). </p>
<p>The map from 'homotopies' $J\times [1]\to\mathcal{C}$ to pseudonatural transformations works out nicely, but the other direction seems problematic. In particular, given $\alpha:F\Rightarrow G$, if we try to form a pseudofunctor $\tilde{\alpha}:J\times [1]\to\mathcal{C}$
it's clear that we should set
$$
\tilde{\alpha}(\text{id}_j,0\to 1) = \alpha (j),\; \text{and}\quad
\tilde{\alpha}(j'\to j,\text{id}_0)=F(j'\to j),\tilde{\alpha}(j'\to j,\text{id}_1) = G(g)
$$
but what about $\tilde{\alpha}(j'\to j,0\to 1)$? The problem is pseudonatural transformations
only tell how to fill squares, not the triangles individually (i.p. they don't give any diagonal 1-morphism in the middle). One could just choose either $\alpha(j)\circ F(g)$ or $G(g) \circ \alpha(j)$ but this won't result in a bijection.</p>
<p>Is the best one can hope for an equivalence modulo modification?</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/59357/why-chain-homotopy-when-there-is-no-topology-in-the-background/59366#59366Answer by Alan Wilder for Why chain homotopy when there is no topology in the background?Alan Wilder2011-03-23T22:54:19Z2011-03-25T01:14:54Z<p>There is an inner-hom in $\mathbf{Chain}$, and the 1-chains are chain homotopies. The definition is
$$
\underline{\mathbf{Chain}}(C_\bullet,D_\bullet)_k = \Pi_n \textrm{Hom} (C_{n-k},D_n)
$$
so a 0-chain is just a map $f_n:C_n\rightarrow D_n$. The differential of this complex is given by
$$
df(c) = d_D(f(c)) - (-1)^{|f|}\left(f(d_C(c)\right)
$$
So a 0-cycle is just a chain map. A 1-chain whose boundary is $f-g$ is exactly a chain homotopy from $g$ to $f$.</p>
<p>Alternatively, there is a model structure on $\mathbf{Chain}$ where the weak equivalences are quasi-isomorphisms, and you can make sense of cylinder as a cylinder object for a chain complex, and then your topological motivation should all still make sense. I don't know all the details though so I won't try...</p>
<p>EDIT: crosspost...</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/59499/end-of-a-weak-equivalenceend of a weak equivalenceAlan Wilder2011-03-24T22:27:47Z2011-03-24T22:27:47Z
<p>I would like to get a concrete description of sufficient conditions for the end of a morphism in $\mathcal{C}^{J^{op}\times J}$ (which is a point-wise weak equivalence) to be a weak equivalence.</p>
<p>In thinking about this problem, I've come to sufficient conditions that seem to be very rarely satisfied. Here's what I have:</p>
<p>An end is the same as a limit over the subdivison category, which I'll denote with $'$s. Subdivision categories are always inverse categories, and in particular Reedy, so we can
put the Reedy model structure on $\mathcal{C}^{J'}$. When the index category is inverse, limit preserves trivial fibrations, so by Ken Brown's lemma, a limit of a point-wise weak equivalence between fibrant objects is a weak equivalence. So we need to figure out what fibrant means in $\mathcal{C}^{J'}$.</p>
<p>Let $X\in\mathcal{C}^{J^{op}\times J}$, and let $X'\in\mathcal{C}^{J'}$ be the associated 'subdivison'. If $f$ is a morphism of $J$, $M_f X' = \ast$ is the terminal object, because there are no non-identity morphisms with source $f$ in $J'$. That implies that in order for $X$ to be s.t. $X'$ is fibrant, for $f:s\rightarrow t$, we need
$$
X(s,t) = X'(f) \rightarrow \ast\times_{M_f\ast}M_fX \cong \ast
$$
to be a fibration. No surprises here--in order to be fibrant it needs to be point-wise fibrant (at least for objects that have a morphism between them).</p>
<p>When we look at objects $i\in J'$ coming from objects of $J$ though, the matching space becomes a limit over the discrete category of morphisms $f$ with source or target $i$. So the "matching space" condition here becomes
$$
X(i,i) = X'(i) \rightarrow \ast\times_\ast M_i X'
\cong \prod_{f:c\rightarrow i} X(c,i) \times \prod_{g:i\rightarrow c} X(i,c)
$$
This seems like it's asking too much. A map into a product being a fibration would require something like the map to each factor being a fibration and all the lifts have to agree.</p>
<p>So, in short, the question is just: </p>
<p>Are there more reasonable sufficient conditions for the end of a weak-equivalence to be weak-equivalence?</p>
<p>Alternatively, if I made a mistake in the above, pointing it out would be great too!</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/59252/geometric-realization-on-mathbfstopgeometric realization on $\mathbf{sTop}$Alan Wilder2011-03-22T23:47:16Z2011-03-23T10:57:50Z
<p>Is geometric realization $|\cdot|:\mathbf{Top}^{\mathbf{\Delta}^{\textrm{op}}}\rightarrow \mathbf{Top}$ a left Quillen functor? If so, under what model structure on $\mathbf{Top}^{\mathbf{\Delta}^{\textrm{op}}}$? I would guess the Reedy model structure.</p>
<p>A reference would be ideal.</p>
<p>Thanks</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55669/nerve-groupoids-kan-complexes-nerve-bicategories-w-adjointsNerve: Groupoids-> Kan Complexes. Nerve: Bicategories w. adjoints -> ?Alan Wilder2011-02-16T21:57:17Z2011-02-23T12:44:01Z
<p>If you take the nerve of a groupoid, you get a Kan complex.</p>
<p>Question:</p>
<p>Take a bicategory that has adjoints for 1-morphisms, which is one notion of 'weak' groupoid (if all 2-morphisms are isomorphisms, then such a bicategory is a 2-groupoid), and take its nerve.</p>
<p>Is there a name for a bisimplicial set arising in this way? Does it have some nice properties? For example, is there a model structure on $\mathbf{ssSet}$ such that these are fibrant?</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55807/inner-hom-and-geometric-realizationInner hom and geometric realization.Alan Wilder2011-02-18T00:44:55Z2011-02-18T04:20:14Z
<p>I would like to prove the following fact, which I learned from a previous MO question.</p>
<p>Let <code>$S_\cdot,T_\cdot\in\mathbf{sSET}$</code> be simplicial sets, and assume that <code>$T_\cdot$</code> is Kan. Then there is a weak equivalence
<code>$$
|\underline{\mathbf{sSET}} (S_\cdot,T_\cdot)|\simeq \underline{\mathbf{TOP}} (|S_\cdot|,|T_\cdot|)
$$</code></p>
<p>Here is what I have so far: By a Quillen adjunction,
<code>$$
\mathbf{TOP} (|\underline{\mathbf{sSET}} (S_\cdot,T_\cdot)|, \underline{\mathbf{TOP}} (|S_\cdot|,|T_\cdot|)) \cong \mathbf{sSET}(\underline{\mathbf{sSET}} (S_\cdot,T_\cdot),\textrm{Sing}\ \underline{\mathbf{TOP}} (|S_\cdot|,|T_\cdot|))
$$</code>
So we need to find a weak equivalence in the second set. Notice
<code>$$
\textrm{Sing}\ \underline{\mathbf{TOP}} (|S_\cdot|,|T_\cdot|))_k \cong \mathbf{TOP}(\Delta^k\times |S_\cdot|,|T_\cdot|)
$$</code>
And by the universal property of coends, there's a map (*)
<code>$$
|\Delta(k)|\rightarrow \Delta^k
$$</code><br>
($\Delta(k)$ is the simplicial set corepresenting $[k]\in\mathbb{\Delta}$), so we get a map to $\mathbf{TOP}(|\Delta(k) \times S_\cdot|,|T_\cdot|)$, which is in turn in bijection with $\mathbf{sSET}(\Delta(k) \times S_\cdot,\textrm{Sing} |T_\cdot|)$, and that is the $k^{\textrm{th}}$ space of <code>$\underline{\mathbf{sSET}}(S_\cdot,\textrm{Sing}\ |T_\cdot|)$</code>. So unraveling, we need to find a weak equivalence
<code>$$
\underline{\mathbf{sSET}} (S_\cdot,T_\cdot) \rightarrow \underline{\mathbf{sSET}} (S_\cdot, \textrm{Sing} |T_\cdot|)
$$</code>
We do have the unit map $T_\cdot\rightarrow \textrm{Sing} |T_\cdot|$ of the adjunction in the target, and since all simplicial sets are cofibrant, the result would follow if
this unit map is a trivial fibration when <code>$T_\cdot$</code> is fibrant (by compatibility of inner-hom with the model structure in $\mathbf{sSET}$). Here's where I'm stuck; it seems like I'm missing a key ingredient to finish.</p>
<p>(*) also here I need to show that these set maps
<code>$$
\mathbf{TOP}(\Delta^k\times |S_\cdot|,|T_\cdot|) \rightarrow \mathbf{TOP}(|\Delta(k) \times S_\cdot|,|T_\cdot|)
$$</code>
assemble to a weak equivalence of simplicial sets.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/48237/compatibility-of-classifying-space-with-inner-homCompatibility of classifying space with inner-hom?Alan Wilder2010-12-04T00:32:00Z2010-12-04T03:32:11Z
<p>Let $\mathbf{sTop}$ be the functor category $\mathbf{Top}^{{\mathbf{\Delta}}^{\textit{op}}}$, and let $\mathbf{sCat}$ be the functor category
$\mathbf{Cat}^{{\mathbf{\Delta}}^{\textit{op}}}$, and let $B:\mathbf{Cat}\rightarrow\mathbf{Top}$ be the classifying space functor (take nerve then realize). How do
$B\underline{\mathbf{sCat}}(\mathcal{C},\mathcal{D})$ and $\underline{\mathbf{sTop}}(B\mathcal{C},B\mathcal{D})$ compare? </p>
<p>I think they are weakly equivalent (in the Reedy model structure), and I'm hoping that there might be a trivial cofibration between them. Anyone know a reference for something like this? </p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68470/mapping-into-a-geometric-realizationComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-22T06:50:48Z2011-06-22T06:50:48ZYeah that is more or less what I expected. Thanks, Tom.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68027/embeddings-of-vector-spaces/68030#68030Comment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-18T00:38:05Z2011-06-18T00:38:05ZThanks for the clarification. To take the last statement further, if I demand that the embeddings preserve a framing of $V$ do I get a homotopy equivalence to $F_k$ with unlabeled points, and so the highly connected as $n\to\infty$ result?http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68027/embeddings-of-vector-spacesComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-17T06:01:12Z2011-06-17T06:01:12ZNo not proper, just smooth. I think the answer below is what I need.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/68027/embeddings-of-vector-spacesComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-17T05:46:56Z2011-06-17T05:46:56ZSmooth embeddings as manifolds. Proper I'm not sure...http://mathoverflow.net/questions/67083/reference-request-lax-endsComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-08T01:49:21Z2011-06-08T01:49:21ZYes as long as one sticks to strict 2-categories and strict functors, the details in proving the lax transformation identity are not too terrible using the obvious definition of lax wedge/lax end. I'll take that as evidence that obvious is right in this case. Still, a reference would be nice.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/67083/reference-request-lax-endsComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-08T00:00:00Z2011-06-08T00:00:00ZI guess there's an obvious candidate for what a "lax wedge" $c\Rightarrow F$ should be. Maybe the rest is straightforward too...http://mathoverflow.net/questions/67083/reference-request-lax-ends/67092#67092Comment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-06T22:55:37Z2011-06-06T22:55:37ZThanks, Finn. I'm still holding out hope for a reference in English, but all of the above is helpful.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/66939/pseudofunctors-and-pseudonatural-transformationsComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-06T19:57:09Z2011-06-06T19:57:09Z@David: The Gray tensor product has more data than the cartesian product, which makes the problem worse, i.e. there are "more" p.functors $J\otimes [1]\to\mathcal{C}$ than p.functors $J\times [1]\to\mathcal{C}$, because $J\times [1]$ embeds in $J\otimes [1]$.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/66939/pseudofunctors-and-pseudonatural-transformations/66970#66970Comment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-05T19:49:57Z2011-06-05T19:49:57Z@Martin: I'm not sure what you mean by the middle paragraph, but assuming you meant a(j)o F(g)=>G(g)o a(j), you actually do have this data on both sides. Clearly it is part of the natural transformation data, and for a p.functor $h:J\times [1]\to C$, this isomorphism is produced by applying the compositors of $h$ to the equal factorizations
\[
(j'\to j,\text{id}_1)\circ (\text{id}_j, 0\to 1)
= (\text{id}_{j'},0\to 1)\circ (j'\to j, \text{id}_0)
\]
in the middle we have $h(j'\to j,0\to 1)$, which is the datum that
has no counterpart on the p.natural transformation sidehttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/66939/pseudofunctors-and-pseudonatural-transformations/66970#66970Comment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-06-05T18:11:40Z2011-06-05T18:11:40ZThanks, Tim, can you go into more detail please?http://mathoverflow.net/questions/61409/using-higher-order-bring-radicals-to-solve-arbitrary-polynomialsComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-04-12T17:59:54Z2011-04-12T17:59:54Z@JC define the Bring radical to be the polynomial itself.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/59499/end-of-a-weak-equivalenceComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-03-25T21:26:42Z2011-03-25T21:26:42Zsome motivation: Segal space seems to refer interchangeably to a simplicial space with extra conditions or bisimplicial set with extra conditions. This makes me think that the two models are at least weakly equivalent in every way that matters, and so there should be weak equivalences
$$
|ssSET(S,T)| \sim sTOP(|S|,|T|)
$$
(these are inner homs) for $S$, $T$ Segal spaces (of the bisimplicial flavor). Trying to produce this weak equivalence led me to the above question.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/59496/direct-sum-decomposition-of-abelian-groupsComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-03-24T22:34:35Z2011-03-24T22:34:35Z<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chinese_remainder_theorem" rel="nofollow">en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chinese_remainder_theorem</a>http://mathoverflow.net/questions/59252/geometric-realization-on-mathbfstopComment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-03-23T05:51:55Z2011-03-23T05:51:55Zyeah left. oops, thanks!http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55807/inner-hom-and-geometric-realization/55816#55816Comment by Alan WilderAlan Wilder2011-02-22T23:30:30Z2011-02-22T23:30:30ZAhh, that is the piece I was missing. Thank you!