User jonah - MathOverflowmost recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-06-20T08:40:26Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/user/10054http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/42127/generalization-of-bezouts-theoremgeneralization of Bezout's Theorem?Jonah2010-10-14T07:46:38Z2010-11-01T04:12:45Z
<p>I learned Bezout's Theorem in class, stated for plane curves (if irreducible, sum of intersection multiplicities equals product of degrees). What is the proper general statement, for projective varieties of degree n?</p>
<p>I think it is something like: If finite, the sum of multiplicities equals the product of degrees.. else the (dimension? degree? sums over irreducible components?) of the intersection is less than or equal to the difference in degrees.</p>
<p>Help is appreciated!</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55014/some-questions-on-riemann-surface/55022#55022Comment by JonahJonah2011-02-12T09:05:33Z2011-02-12T09:05:33ZSure. Say the automorphism of the surface you start with is called f, and the lifted automorphism is called F, and pick x in H. Pick a small enough neighborhood of F(x) so that the restriction of the (holomorphic) covering map is an analytic isomorphism. Now it is clear, since f compose pi is the same as pi compose F, that F can be written, in a suitably small neighborhood of x, as the composition of holomorphic maps.http://mathoverflow.net/questions/55014/some-questions-on-riemann-surface/55022#55022Comment by JonahJonah2011-02-11T16:48:17Z2011-02-11T16:48:17ZFor Q3: If H is the upper half-plane, S the Riemann surface, and pi:H->S, then composing pi with any automorphism gives a holomorphic map from H to S. Since this map takes a simply-connected surface to S (in particular the image of pi_1 of H is trivial), it must lift to a holomorphic map to H.