NNO = (first order) PA - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net 2013-05-24T14:31:59Z http://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/93631 http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdf http://mathoverflow.net/questions/93631/nno-first-order-pa NNO = (first order) PA David Roberts 2012-04-10T07:50:32Z 2012-04-11T07:05:25Z <p>Recall the definition of a <a href="http://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/natural+numbers+object" rel="nofollow">Natural Numbers Object</a> in a topos, and the <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peano%27s_axioms#First-order_theory_of_arithmetic" rel="nofollow">first order axioms</a> for Peano Arithmetic. I am more familiar with the first definition than the second, so I cannot tell from the (obviously infallible) Wikipedia page whether first order PA is equivalent to 'second order' PA -- PA with the induction axiom scheme replaced by a similar one involving inductive subsets $A \subset \mathbb{N}$. </p> <p>The equivalence between 'second order' PA and a NNO in $Set$ in one direction (NNO $\Rightarrow$ PA) is easy, and the other (PA $\Rightarrow$ NNO) is in MacLane's book <em>Mathematics, form and function</em> which I haven't seen (bonus question: another reference for the proof would be nice).</p> <p>But I would like to see a proof of NNO = (first order) PA, if possible.</p> <p>My motivation is to consider possibly weaker forms of arithmetic, and it is how to deal with (versions of) the induction axiom schema as usually presented from a logic point of view on which I would like a bit of background.</p> <p>Edit: As Andreas points out, I really should be asking about <em>models</em> of PA and NNOs.</p> http://mathoverflow.net/questions/93631/nno-first-order-pa/93646#93646 Answer by Emil Jeřábek for NNO = (first order) PA Emil Jeřábek 2012-04-10T11:25:59Z 2012-04-10T11:25:59Z <p>A NNO is unique up to isomorphism (likewise, a model of second-order arithmetic is unique). In contrast, every first-order theory with at least one infinite model has a proper class of nonisomorphic models of arbitrary large cardinalities, due to Löwenheim–Skolem theorem. Thus, NNO cannot be equivalent to PA, or any other first-order arithmetic for that matter.</p> http://mathoverflow.net/questions/93631/nno-first-order-pa/93739#93739 Answer by Andrej Bauer for NNO = (first order) PA Andrej Bauer 2012-04-11T07:05:25Z 2012-04-11T07:05:25Z <p>J. Lambek and P. J. Scott: Introduction to higher-order categorical logic, Cambridge University Press, 1986, Part II, Section 4, <a href="http://books.google.si/books?id=6PY_emBeGjUC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=lambek%2520scott%2520higher-order%2520categorical%2520logic&amp;pg=PA145#v=onepage&amp;q=lambek%2520scott%2520higher-order%2520categorical%2520logic&amp;f=false" rel="nofollow">Theorem 4.1</a> shows that a nno satisfies the first-order Peano rules (which are listed on <a href="http://books.google.si/books?id=6PY_emBeGjUC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=lambek%2520scott%2520higher-order%2520categorical%2520logic&amp;pg=PA135#v=onepage&amp;q=lambek%2520scott%2520higher-order%2520categorical%2520logic&amp;f=false" rel="nofollow">page 135</a> under 3.7, 3.8., 3.9), while Part II, Section 12, <a href="http://books.google.si/books?id=6PY_emBeGjUC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=lambek%2520scott%2520higher-order%2520categorical%2520logic&amp;pg=PA192#v=onepage&amp;q=lambek%2520scott%2520higher-order%2520categorical%2520logic&amp;f=false" rel="nofollow">Proposition 12.4</a> shows that Peano rules give a nno for the syntactic topos. By the universal property of the syntactic topos it then follows that in any topos which validates Peano rules has a nno.</p> <p>The whole business with classical vs. non-classical logic is a red herring. You may throw excluded middle in if that is your wish.</p>