Does Godel's Incompletenss Theorem mean there is no solution to Hilbert's 6th Problem? - MathOverflow [closed]most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-22T02:28:40Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/89414http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/89414/does-godels-incompletenss-theorem-mean-there-is-no-solution-to-hilberts-6th-proDoes Godel's Incompletenss Theorem mean there is no solution to Hilbert's 6th Problem?Jamahl Peavey2012-02-24T15:47:40Z2012-02-24T16:22:54Z
<p>If the stated question is true then what are the consequencies to mathematical physics as an aspect of Hilbert's 6th Problem.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/89414/does-godels-incompletenss-theorem-mean-there-is-no-solution-to-hilberts-6th-pro/89417#89417Answer by Ben Crowell for Does Godel's Incompletenss Theorem mean there is no solution to Hilbert's 6th Problem?Ben Crowell2012-02-24T16:22:54Z2012-02-24T16:22:54Z<p>No. The incompleteness theorem does not say anything about whether a particular informal theory is capable of being formalized. The incompleteness theorem only applies to formal theories, so it doesn't tell us anything about a theory that has not yet been formalized. You might want to read a book by Franzen called Godel's Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to Its Use and Abuse.</p>