Partial feedback linearization (Control theory) - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-06-18T21:46:47Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/83352http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/83352/partial-feedback-linearization-control-theoryPartial feedback linearization (Control theory)Ash Shevlyakov2011-12-13T17:06:21Z2011-12-18T09:41:48Z
<p>Greetings,
I'm trying to understand a theorem about partial feedback linearization from a paper "On the largest feedback linearizable subsystem" by R.Marino (you can find it here: <a href="http://www.mediafire.com/?si2t4lnhxa4jt82" rel="nofollow">http://www.mediafire.com/?si2t4lnhxa4jt82</a>)</p>
<p>My question is concerning proof of theorem 4.
Citing:</p>
<p>Consider <code>$\overline{G}^{\overline{k}^*_1-2}$</code>. It is easy to see that
there must exist an <code>$(r_{k^*_1-1})$</code>-vector function $\phi$, such that
<code>$$
d\phi_1 \subset (\overline{G}^{k^*_1-2})^{\bot}
$$</code>
and
<code>$$
rank <d \phi_1, ad _f^{\overline{k}^*_1-1} G>=r_{\overline{k}^*_1-1}
$$</code></p>
<p>Is the first proposition a consequence of Frobenius theorem?
Where does the second proposition come from?</p>