most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net 2013-05-25T14:19:13Z http://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/71920 http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdf http://mathoverflow.net/questions/71920/infinite-summation blabber 2011-08-02T19:16:49Z 2011-08-02T19:16:49Z

<p>Using Wolfram alpha, I'm pretty sure that if $k\in\mathbb{Z}^+$, then $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{n!}{(n+k)!}=\dfrac{1}{(k-1)(k-1)!}$. How do you prove this?</p>