One point in the post of Terence Tao on Ax-Grothendieck theorem - MathOverflow

One point in the post of Terence Tao on Ax-Grothendieck theorem

2011-03-05T23:55:49Z

I was trying to understand completely the post of Terrence Tao on Ax-Grothendieck theorem.

http://terrytao.wordpress.com/2009/03/07/infinite-fields-finite-fields-and-the-ax-grothendieck-theorem/

This is very cute. Using finite fields you prove that every injective polynomial map $\mathbb C^n\to \mathbb C^n$ is bijective. It seems to me that the only point in the proof presented in the post that is not explained completely is the following lemma:

Lemma. Take any finitely generated ring over $\mathbb Z$ and quotient it by a maximal ideal. Then the quotient is a finite filed.

Is there some comprehensible reference for the proof of this lemma?

In slightly different wording, the question is the following: assuming Nullstelensatz, can one really give a complete proof of Ax-Grothendick theorem in two pages, so that it can be completely explained in one (2 hours) lecture of an undergraduate course on algebraic geometry?

Answer by Daniel Litt for One point in the post of Terence Tao on Ax-Grothendieck theorem

2011-03-06T00:08:55Z

Let $R$ be a finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}$-algebra, and $\mathfrak{m}\subset R$ are maximal ideal. We wish to show $R/\mathfrak{m}$ is a finite field.

Let $i: \mathbb{Z}\to R$ be the unique ring map; then $i^{-1}(\mathfrak{m})$ is a maximal ideal in $\mathbb{Z}$ (as $R$ is finitely generated over $\mathbb{Z})$, and thus $\mathbb{Z}/i^{-1}(\mathfrak{m})$ is a finite field $\mathbb{F}_p$ for some prime $p$. As $R$ is finitely generated over $\mathbb{Z}$, $R/\mathfrak{m}$ is finitely generated over $\mathbb{F}_p$. But all finite field extensions of $\mathbb{F}_p$ are still finite, completing the proof.

Answer by Qing Liu for One point in the post of Terence Tao on Ax-Grothendieck theorem

2011-03-06T00:33:58Z

To prove Nullstellensatz over $\mathbb{Z}$: as the morphism $f: \mathrm{Spec}(R)\to\mathrm{Spec}(\mathbb Z)$ is of finite type, a theorem of Chevalley says that the image of any constructible subset is constructible. So the image of any closed point by $f$ is a point which is a constructible subset. This can not be the generic point of $\mathrm{Spec}(\mathbb Z)$, so it must be a closed point.

Note that this does not hold in general. For example, over the ring of $p$-adic integers, the ideal $(pX-1)\mathbb{Z}_p[X]$ is maximal, but its preimage in $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is $0$ and it not maximal.

[EDIT] Another proof using Noether's normalization lemma: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/42276: if a maximal ideal $\mathfrak m$ of $R$ is such that $\mathfrak m\cap \mathbb Z=0$, then $R/\mathfrak m$ is finite type over (and contains) $\mathbb Z$. So there exits $f\in\mathbb Z$ non-zero and a finite injective homomorphism $\mathbb Z_f[X_1,\dots, X_d]\hookrightarrow R/\mathfrak m$. But then $\mathbb Z_f[X_1,\dots, X_d]$ must be a field. This is impossible because the units of this ring are $\pm f^k$, $k$ relative integers.

Answer by Takehiko Yasuda for One point in the post of Terence Tao on Ax-Grothendieck theorem

2011-03-06T02:21:35Z

This is not an answer to your question, but let me point out that the Ax-Grothendieck theorem is now easy to prove using E-polynomials (Hodge-Deligne polynomials). If $f:X \to X $ is an injective endomorphism of a complex algebraic variety, then $E(X) = E(f(X))=E(X)-E(X\setminus f(X))$. So $E(X\setminus f(X))=0$ and $X\setminus f(X) = \emptyset$, because the degree of a constructible set is twice its dimension. Since one supposes the mixed Hodge theory, this proof is not trivial at all. But at least for me, this looks more natural.

Answer by Guillermo Mantilla for One point in the post of Terence Tao on Ax-Grothendieck theorem

2011-03-06T03:23:43Z

One can give a more elementary proof of the fact that $\mathfrak{m} \cap \mathbb{Z} \neq 0$ - By more elementary I mean a proof that only uses the Nullstellensatz over $\mathbb{Q}$.

Notice that it is enough to verify the claim for $R=\mathbb{Z}[x_1,..,x_n]$, and $\mathfrak{m} \in Max(R)$.

Suppose there is $\mathfrak{m} \in Max(R)$ such that $\mathfrak{m} \cap \mathbb{Z} =0$. Then, we may assume that $\mathbb{Z} \subseteq F :=\mathbb{Z}[x_1,..,x_n]/\mathfrak{m}$. If we denote by $\alpha_{i}=x_i+\mathfrak{m}$ we have that $F=\mathbb{Z}[\alpha_1,..,\alpha_n]$. Since $F$ is a field we conclude that $\mathbb{Z}[\alpha_1,..,\alpha_n]=\mathbb{Q}(\alpha_1,..,\alpha_n)$.

Claim: $F/\mathbb{Q}$ is an algebraic extension.

proof: $F/\mathbb{Q}$ is a finitely generated field extension- generated as an algebra- in particular $F$ is of the form $\mathbb{Q}[y_1,..,y_m]/M$ for some $M$ maximal ideal of $\mathbb{Q}[y_1,..,y_m].$ By the Nullstellensatz $M$ has a zero $(\beta_1,...,\beta_m)$ where each $b_i$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}$, so $F=\mathbb{Q}(\beta_1,...,\beta_m)$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}$.

Since each $\alpha_{i}$ is algebraic, there are integers $q_i$'s such that $q_{i}\alpha_{i}$ is integral over $\mathbb{Z}$ for all $i$. In particular $F=\mathbb{Z}[\alpha_1,..,\alpha_n]$ is an integral extension of $\displaystyle \mathbb{Z}[\frac{1}{q_1},..,\frac{1}{q_n}]$. Since $F$ is a field we have that $\displaystyle \mathbb{Z}[\frac{1}{q_1},..,\frac{1}{q_n}]$ is a field, which is a contradiction( $p$ is not invertible for any prime not dividing $q_{1}...q_{n}$).