Did Erdős publish his proof of the multiplicative version of the Erdős-Turán conjecture? - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-24T00:36:40Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/49695http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/49695/did-erds-publish-his-proof-of-the-multiplicative-version-of-the-erds-turan-conjDid Erdős publish his proof of the multiplicative version of the Erdős-Turán conjecture?Gjergji Zaimi2010-12-17T01:47:36Z2010-12-18T02:26:03Z
<p>I read in an article of Erdős ("Extremal problems in number theory") that he had a proof of the multiplicative version of the <a href="http://mathoverflow.net/questions/43995/are-any-good-strategies-known-for-erdos-turan-conjecture-on-additive-bases-of-ord" rel="nofollow">Erdős-Turán conjecture</a>. The statement of this theorem is</p>
<blockquote>
<p>Let $a_1 < a_2 < \cdots$ and denote by $g(n)$ the number of solutions to $n=a_ia_j$. Then $g(n)>0$ for all $n>n_0$ implies
$$\limsup_{n\to \infty} \ g(n)=\infty.$$</p>
</blockquote>
<p>He also claims that this follows under the weaker assumption: let $A(x)=\sum_{a_i < x} 1$. Assume that for every $k$ we have $$\limsup_{x\to \infty} \ A(x)\left(x\left(\frac{\log\log x}{\log x}\right) ^k \right)^{-1}=\infty$$ than the same conclusion follows. However he also says that the proofs are difficult and haven't been published yet. </p>
<p>Since that article is from 1965 I am assuming he must have published something about this theorem afterward, but I don't have a reference. I have seen a proof of the first statement before (not by Erdős), but not the second one. Does anyone know if these proofs were published, simplified or generalized?</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/49695/did-erds-publish-his-proof-of-the-multiplicative-version-of-the-erds-turan-conj/49760#49760Answer by Mark Lewko for Did Erdős publish his proof of the multiplicative version of the Erdős-Turán conjecture?Mark Lewko2010-12-17T22:32:22Z2010-12-17T22:32:22Z<p>Yes.</p>
<p>P. Erdõs: On the multiplicative representation of integers, Israel J. Math. 2 (1964), 251--261 (see: <a href="http://www.renyi.hu/~p_erdos/1964-20.pdf" rel="nofollow">http://www.renyi.hu/~p_erdos/1964-20.pdf</a> )</p>
<p>A somewhat different proof is given in: </p>
<p>Nešetřil, Rödl, Two proofs in combinatorial number theory. Proc. Amer. Math. Soc. 93 (1985), no. 1, 185–188. </p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/49695/did-erds-publish-his-proof-of-the-multiplicative-version-of-the-erds-turan-conj/49769#49769Answer by Mel Nathanson for Did Erdős publish his proof of the multiplicative version of the Erdős-Turán conjecture?Mel Nathanson2010-12-18T02:26:03Z2010-12-18T02:26:03Z<p>There is a generalization of Erdos' theorem in my paper "Multiplicative representations of integers," Israel Journal of Mathematics 57 (1987), 129--136.</p>