Monotone injection of an ordinal into $[0,1]$ - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-06-19T15:34:05Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/41598http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/41598/monotone-injection-of-an-ordinal-into-0-1Monotone injection of an ordinal into $[0,1]$Andreas Thom2010-10-09T14:33:05Z2010-10-12T13:11:06Z
<p>This is related to my <a href="http://mathoverflow.net/questions/41597/transfinite-induction-a-theorem-of-pedersen-and-chains-of-subalgebras-of-bh" rel="nofollow">recent question</a> and would provide a natural positive answer to Question 2. I am sure this must be known to experts.</p>
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<p><strong>Question:</strong> Is there a monotone injection $(\omega_1,<) \to ([0,1],<)$ ?</p>
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http://mathoverflow.net/questions/41598/monotone-injection-of-an-ordinal-into-0-1/41601#41601Answer by Alessandro Sisto for Monotone injection of an ordinal into $[0,1]$Alessandro Sisto2010-10-09T14:44:44Z2010-10-09T14:44:44Z<p>No, because you could use it to construct an injective map <code>$\omega_1\to\mathbb{Q}$</code>, mapping <code>$\alpha<\omega_1$</code> to some rational number between <code>$\alpha$</code> and <code>`$\alpha+1$</code>.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/41598/monotone-injection-of-an-ordinal-into-0-1/41603#41603Answer by Péter Komjáth for Monotone injection of an ordinal into $[0,1]$Péter Komjáth2010-10-09T15:30:51Z2010-10-09T15:30:51Z<p>Let me add a slightly different argument to Alessandro's quick and clever solution.
Assume that $f:(\omega_1,<)\to([0,1],<)$ is an order preserving map. Let $X$ be the range of $f$. Set $a=\sup(X)$, the least upper bound of $X$. Now $X\cap [0,a]$ is uncountable while $X\cap [0,a-\frac{1}{n}]$ is countable for $n=1,2,\dots,$ an impossibility. Question: where did I use that $f$ is o.p.? </p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/41598/monotone-injection-of-an-ordinal-into-0-1/41901#41901Answer by Dave Marker for Monotone injection of an ordinal into $[0,1]$Dave Marker2010-10-12T12:46:32Z2010-10-12T13:11:06Z<p>There is a far reaching generalization of this due to Friedman and Shelah. Suppose $X$ is a Borel set in a Polish space and <code>$<$</code> is a linear order of $X$ that is a Borel subset of $X\times X$. Then there is no order preserving map from $\omega_1$ into <code>$(X,<)$</code>.</p>
<p>The Friedman-Shelah result follows from a later structure theorem of Harrington and Shelah
who proved that for any such Borel linear order $(X,<)$ there is a Borel measurable order preserving
map into ${\bf R}^\alpha$ for some countable ordinal $\alpha$ where ${\bf R}^\alpha$ is ordered lexicographically. The arguments for $[0,1]$ above can be generalized to show
that ${\bf R}^\alpha$ has no $\omega_1$-chains. </p>