Uniform solutions to Post's problem for axiomatizable theories - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-06-18T07:07:43Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/26411http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/26411/uniform-solutions-to-posts-problem-for-axiomatizable-theoriesUniform solutions to Post's problem for axiomatizable theoriesFrançois G. Dorais2010-05-30T02:44:59Z2010-06-01T04:26:50Z
<p>The Second Incompleteness Theorem says that if $T$ is a consistent (computably) axiomatizable theory which extends IΣ<sub>1</sub>, then $\mathrm{Con}(T)$ is not provable from $T$. By analogy with computability theory, the stronger theory $T + \mathrm{Con}(T)$ can be thought of as the "jump" of $T$. To abuse this analogy, I will use $T'$ to denote the theory $T + \mathrm{Con}(T)$. I will write $T \leq S$ when $S$ proves every axiom of $T$; I will also write $S \equiv T$ (resp. $T < S$) when $T \leq S$ and $S \leq T$ (resp. $S \nleq T$). </p>
<p>It is well-known that if $T$ is consistent there are plenty of axiomatizable theories $S$ such that $T < S < T'$. In the following questions $H$ will denote an operator (like $\mathrm{Con}$) that uses the computable axiomatization of $T$ to produce a sentence $H(T)$. I will write $T^H$ for the theory $T + H(T)$.</p>
<ol>
<li><p>Is there a computable operator $H(T)$ such that $T < T^H < T'$ for every consistent axiomatizable theory $T$ extending IΣ<sub>1</sub>? Is there such an operator which moreover satisfies that $T \equiv S$ implies $T^H \equiv S^H$?</p></li>
<li><p>Is there a computable operator $H(T)$ such that $(T^H)^H \equiv T'$ for every consistent axiomatizable $T$ extending IΣ<sub>1</sub>? Is there such an operator which moreover satisfies that $T \equiv S$ implies $T^H \equiv S^H$?</p></li>
</ol>
<p>Question 1 asks for a uniform solution to the analogue of Post's Problem for axiomatizable theories. Question 2 asks for a uniform "half-jump" operator.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/26411/uniform-solutions-to-posts-problem-for-axiomatizable-theories/26413#26413Answer by Carl Mummert for Uniform solutions to Post's problem for axiomatizable theoriesCarl Mummert2010-05-30T03:10:17Z2010-06-01T04:26:50Z<p>(Note: this has been rewritten to reflect the comments below). </p>
<p>The answer to #1 is basically yes, because the proof that the Lindenbaum algebra above T is atomless is completely constructive. </p>
<p>Start with a (consistent) theory T to which the second incompleteness theorem applies, which means that T + ~Con(T) is also consistent. Then there is a sentence S such that T + ~Con(T) neither proves nor disproves S (using the first incompleteness theorem via Rosser's trick). So T + ~Con(T)$\land$~S is stronger than T + ~Con(T), but is still consistent. This means that T + ~(Con(T)$\lor$S) is consistent, so T + Con(T)$\lor$S is stonger than T. </p>
<p>If T $\vdash$ (Con(T)$\lor$S) $\to$ Con(T) then T $\vdash$ S $\to$ Con(T). But this means T $\vdash$ ~Con(T) $\to$ ~S which is impossible. This shows that T + (Con(T)$\lor$S) < T+ Con(T) .</p>
<p>So we can let T<sup>H</sup> be T + (Con(T)$\lor$S). </p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/26411/uniform-solutions-to-posts-problem-for-axiomatizable-theories/26500#26500Answer by Joel David Hamkins for Uniform solutions to Post's problem for axiomatizable theoriesJoel David Hamkins2010-05-30T20:33:58Z2010-05-30T20:47:47Z<p>The premise in your question that the <em>Con</em> operator itself
has the desired property and serves as a jump operator is
not universally true among the theories you consider.
Specifically, you seem to assume that because
$\text{Con}(T)$ is not provable in $T$, that
$T+\text{Con(T)}$ is consistent. But this is not correct,
because perhaps $T$ actually proves $\neg\text{Con}(T)$.
One easy instance of this is the theory
$T=PA+\neg\text{Con}(PA)$, which is consistent by the 2nd
Incompleteness Theorem, but clearly proves
$\neg\text{Con}(PA)$ and hence also $\neg\text{Con}(T)$.
Thus, as weird as it sounds, $T$ is a consistent theory
that proves its own inconsistency. In this case your theory
$T'$ is inconsistent and the jump failed. Carl's theory
$T^H$ in this case is consistent, but upon inspection you
will find that it is equivalent to $T$. So for this theory
$T$, your theory $T'$ jumped into inconsistency, and his
theory didn't jump at all.</p>
<p>One can similarly replace $PA$ here with any representable
theory $T_0$ and arrive at similar counterexamples, densely above any theory.</p>
<p>You can fix the question by
considering only the case where $T'$ is consistent, which
is surely what you had in mind. In this event, you would
only apply the jump when it happens to arrive at a
consistent theory. Since this question is not decidable
from a presentation of the theory, however, even from a
finite axiomatization, it may affect your motivation for
considering computable versions of the half-jump, since even the
full jump is not computable. </p>
<p>For this reason, and also because there is something a
little arbitrary about having the jump only partially
defined, it may be that a more robust jump arises from the
Rosser sentence---<em>there is no proof of me without a
shorter proof of my negation</em>---instead of $\text{Con}(T)$?
This would put you back into the universal domain of all
representable consistent theories.</p>