Converse to Banach's fixed point theorem? - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-20T04:14:55Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/26119http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/26119/converse-to-banachs-fixed-point-theoremConverse to Banach's fixed point theorem?Xandi Tuni2010-05-27T08:35:40Z2011-06-23T10:09:24Z
<p>Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. Banach's fixed point theorem states that if $X$ is complete, then every contraction map $f:X\to X$ has a unique fixed point. A contraction map is a continuous map for which there is an real number $0\leq r < 1$ such that $d(f(x),f(y))\leq rd(x,y)$ holds for all $x,y\in X$.</p>
<blockquote>
<p>Suppose $X$ is a metric space such that every contraction map $f:X\to X$ has a unique fixed point. Is $X$ complete?</p>
</blockquote>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/26119/converse-to-banachs-fixed-point-theorem/26122#26122Answer by Gjergji Zaimi for Converse to Banach's fixed point theorem?Gjergji Zaimi2010-05-27T08:47:47Z2010-05-27T08:47:47Z<p>The answer is no, for example look at the graph of $\sin(1/x)$ on $(0,1]$. But for more information and related questions check out "On a converse to Banach's Fixed Point Theorem" by Márton Elekes.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/26119/converse-to-banachs-fixed-point-theorem/26126#26126Answer by Pete L. Clark for Converse to Banach's fixed point theorem?Pete L. Clark2010-05-27T09:46:14Z2011-05-24T18:20:34Z<p>As has been pointed out, the putative converse to the Contraction Mapping Theorem suggested in the question is not true. But there <em>is</em> a result which may reasonably be viewed as the converse of CMT. </p>
<p>Theorem (Bessaga, 1959): Let $X$ a set and $f: X \rightarrow X$ a function such that for all $n \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, the iterate $f^n$ has a unique fixed point. Then there exists a complete metric on $X$ with respect to which $f$ is a contraction mapping (for any preassigned constant $c \in (0,1)$). </p>
<p>[<b>Addendum</b>: I just looked at Elekes' paper and saw that it cites this result of Bessaga and says that it is seemingly the earliest converse. So I guess this post is not exactly exciting news. Oh well.] </p>
<p>I learned about this result from a talk that Keith Conrad gave in the Undergraduate Math Club at UGA. For more information, see his "blurb"</p>
<p><a href="http://www.math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/analysis/contractionshort.pdf" rel="nofollow">http://www.math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/analysis/contractionshort.pdf</a></p>
<p>In later correspondence with him I pointed out the following result, which is now included in his writeup:</p>
<p>Theorem: For a function $f: X \rightarrow X$, the following are equivalent:<br>
(i) Every iterate $f^n$ has at most one fixed point.<br>
(ii) There is a metric (not necessarily complete!) with respect to which $f$ is a contraction.</p>
<p>This is not an earth-shattering result but it has a nice, crisp statement and afterwards I decided that it was too good to be true that I was the first to think of it. And I was right -- after a quick internet search I found the result in a published paper. (Unfortunately I didn't take note of the reference. Sorry, K.)</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/26119/converse-to-banachs-fixed-point-theorem/26129#26129Answer by Pietro Majer for Converse to Banach's fixed point theorem?Pietro Majer2010-05-27T10:31:43Z2010-05-27T11:41:57Z<p>If you want a sort of positive result, this comes to my mind, for what is worth: </p>
<blockquote>
<p>If X is a metric space such that any
contraction map T:Y→Y on any nonempty
closed subset of X has a fixed point,
then X is complete.</p>
</blockquote>
<p>Indeed, a Cauchy sequence (x<sub>n</sub>) converges if and only if some subsequence converges. Up to extracting a subsequence, a Cauchy sequence is either stationary (thus convergent) or injective, and verifies d(x<sub>p+1</sub>,x<sub>q+1</sub>)≤d(x<sub>p</sub>,x<sub>q</sub>)/2.
If the set {x<sub>n</sub>: n∈<strong>N</strong>} were closed in X, T(x<sub>n</sub>):=x<sub>n+1</sub> defines a contraction with no fixed points there. Hence it's not closed, thus it's closure contains exactly one more point, the limit of the sequence.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/26119/converse-to-banachs-fixed-point-theorem/68599#68599Answer by Stefan Geschke for Converse to Banach's fixed point theorem?Stefan Geschke2011-06-23T10:02:42Z2011-06-23T10:09:24Z<p>This is now an old thread, but I just came across it. The question you are asking was asked by Behrends a couple of years ago, and he knew about the counter example on the plane that Gjergji points out. Behrends was specifically asking for an incomplete metric space that is a subset of the line and has the fixed point property.</p>
<p>I came up with a partition of $\mathbb R$ into two dense sets $X_0$ and $X_1$ such that
for all $i\in{0,1}$, every map $f:X_i\to X_i$ that satisfies
$$\forall x,y\in X_i(x\not=y\rightarrow|f(x)-f(y)|<|x-y|)$$
is actually constant (and in particular has a fixed point).
The $X_i$ can be constructed by an easy transfinite recursion and there is no control
of how complicated the sets are.
This is the huge advantage of Elekes' examples which are Borel.</p>
<p>The notes with my proof are here: <a href="http://www.hausdorff-center.uni-bonn.de/people/geschke/papers/Behrends.pdf" rel="nofollow">http://www.hausdorff-center.uni-bonn.de/people/geschke/papers/Behrends.pdf</a></p>