If the fourier transformed of f is odd, is f odd? - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-06-20T02:54:40Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/19997http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/19997/if-the-fourier-transformed-of-f-is-odd-is-f-oddIf the fourier transformed of f is odd, is f odd? Nicolò2010-03-31T20:00:36Z2010-06-22T11:25:10Z
<p>Let $f\in L^1(R)$ such that $F(f)$ is odd, where $F$ is the Fourier transform. Can I then say that $f$ is odd?</p>
<p>If $F(f)$ is odd, then </p>
<p>$\int \cos(x\xi) f(x) dx = 0 \:\:\forall \xi\in R$</p>
<p>Can I deduce from it that $f$ is odd?</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/19997/if-the-fourier-transformed-of-f-is-odd-is-f-odd/20000#20000Answer by Johannes Hahn for If the fourier transformed of f is odd, is f odd? Johannes Hahn2010-03-31T20:33:48Z2010-03-31T20:33:48Z<p>Look at $L^2$ first: In $L^2$ the FT is diagonalizable. The space of odd functions $\in L^2$ is the direct sum `$Eig(\mathcal{F},+i)\oplus Eig(\mathcal{F},-i)$ of the eigenspaces of $\mathcal{F}$ with respect to the eigenvalues $+i$ and $-i$. Because eigenspace are mapped into themselves, $\mathcal{F}$ maps odd functions to odd functions.</p>
<p>In particular this is true for all $f\in L^1\cap L^2$ and by continuity it is true for all $f\in L^1$. (In fact an analogue statement is true for all tempered distributions.)</p>
<p>EDIT: Oh, I just saw that you asked for the other direction. Using the same argument you can show that $\mathcal{F}f$ odd $\implies f=\mathcal{F}^3(\mathcal{F}f)$ odd is true for all $f\in L^2$. This time I'm not quite sure if it is possible to extend this from $L^1\cap L^2$ to $L^1$, but maybe the result for $L^1\cap L^2$ is useful for you too.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/19997/if-the-fourier-transformed-of-f-is-odd-is-f-odd/20042#20042Answer by Robin Chapman for If the fourier transformed of f is odd, is f odd? Robin Chapman2010-04-01T06:26:24Z2010-04-01T06:26:24Z<p>Write $f^-(x)=f(-x)$ etc. Then $F(f^-)=F(f)^-$. If $F(f)$ is odd then
$$0=F(f)+F(f)^-=F(f+f^-).$$
The only $L^1$ function with zero Fourier transform is $0$ so that $f+f^-=0$,
that is, $f$ is odd.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/19997/if-the-fourier-transformed-of-f-is-odd-is-f-odd/29077#29077Answer by Zen Harper for If the fourier transformed of f is odd, is f odd? Zen Harper2010-06-22T11:25:10Z2010-06-22T11:25:10Z<p>Yes. Using <em>tempered distributions</em> it's immediately obvious, since $f = C \mathcal{F}^3 (\mathcal{F} f)$ for a constant $C$, and $\mathcal{F}$ maps odd <em>distributions</em> into odd <em>distributions</em>.</p>
<p>The missing details of the proof are just simple exercises in distributions.</p>
<p>Distribution theory is very useful for Fourier transform questions like this, since Fourier inversion works perfectly.</p>