An interesting statement about definability in set theory. Is it true, false or undecidable? - MathOverflow [closed]most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-19T00:40:57Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/19039http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/19039/an-interesting-statement-about-definability-in-set-theory-is-it-true-false-or-uAn interesting statement about definability in set theory. Is it true, false or undecidable?Garabed Gulbenkian2010-03-22T17:18:14Z2010-03-22T17:18:14Z
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<p><strong>Possible Duplicate:</strong><br>
<a href="http://mathoverflow.net/questions/17608/a-question-about-ordinal-definable-real-numbers" rel="nofollow">A question about ordinal definable real numbers</a> </p>
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<p>Does anybody know whether there is a theorem of ZFC (Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory with the Axiom of Choice)
stating that if S is any ordinal definable set of real numbers at least one of whose elements is a real
number which is not ordinal definable, then S is necessarily uncountable? Or is the provability of this
statement in ZFC-assuming ZFC is consistent-actually an open question?</p>