Can a continuous, nowhere differentiable function have specified "shape" at every point? - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-06-18T06:01:24Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/18319http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/18319/can-a-continuous-nowhere-differentiable-function-have-specified-shape-at-everyCan a continuous, nowhere differentiable function have specified "shape" at every point?Mike Hall2010-03-15T22:44:43Z2011-07-14T15:21:33Z
<p>I'm a bit embarrassed to admit that:</p>
<p>a) This is a rather unmotivated question.</p>
<p>b) I can't remember whether or not I've asked this before, but searching doesn't seem to turn anything up so ...</p>
<p>Consider some "shape" function $\phi: \mathbf{R} \to \mathbf{R}$. Then given some function $f: \mathbf{R} \to \mathbf{R}$, one can ask whether the "difference quotient",</p>
<p>$\lim_{y\to x} \frac{f(y)-f(x)}{\phi(y-x)}$,</p>
<p>exists at various points $x$. Letting $\phi(x) = x$ corresponds to taking normal derivatives, and intuitively when the limit exists this means that near $x$, the function $f$ "looks like" $\phi$ does near 0. </p>
<p>However, if the ratio $\phi(x)/x$ is not bounded above or away from 0 as $x\to 0$ (I'm mostly thinking of the case when it is neither, so that $\phi$ is "wildly oscillating" in some sense), then anywhere the above limit exists and is nonzero, the function $f$ is necessarily non-differentiable. </p>
<p>My question: If $\phi$ is some wildly oscillating function as described above (pick your favorite), can there be an $f$ for which this limit exists everywhere?</p>
<p>(Edit: I suppose I really want $\phi$ and $f$ to be continuous functions.)</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/18319/can-a-continuous-nowhere-differentiable-function-have-specified-shape-at-every/18345#18345Answer by Thomas Kragh for Can a continuous, nowhere differentiable function have specified "shape" at every point?Thomas Kragh2010-03-16T09:02:09Z2010-03-16T09:15:58Z<p>Assume WLOG that $\phi(x)>0$ when $x>0$. Since the limit described exists for all $x$ in the source of $f$. We get for any $x$ the bound:</p>
<p>$f(x+\delta)-f(x) \leq C\phi(\delta)$</p>
<p>for $0 < \delta < \delta_0$ for some $C,\delta_0>0$ which may depend on $x$.</p>
<p>diving by $\delta$ we get by the assumptions on $\phi$ that</p>
<p>$\underline{\lim}_{\delta \to 0} ( \frac{f(x+\delta) - f(x)}{\delta}) \leq 0$</p>
<p>This is one the four derivatives of $f$, and proposition 2 chapter 5 in Real Analysis by H.L. Royden states that if $f$ is continuous then it is (non-strictly) decreasing. Similar for increasing. So $f$ is constant.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/18319/can-a-continuous-nowhere-differentiable-function-have-specified-shape-at-every/70333#70333Answer by Dejan Govc for Can a continuous, nowhere differentiable function have specified "shape" at every point?Dejan Govc2011-07-14T15:21:33Z2011-07-14T15:21:33Z<p>I'm new here, so I hope my answer is of any use and not too late.</p>
<p>I was wondering: Wouldn't it be perhaps more natural to consider limits of the form</p>
<p>$\lim_{y\to x}\frac{f(y)-f(x)}{\phi(y)-\phi(x)}$?</p>
<p>If for example we take $f(x) = |x|$ for $x\in \bf{R}$ and $\phi = f$, the "derivative" would be equal to one everywhere, which makes sense, since $f$ and $\phi$ are really the same, therefore their shape should be the same, right?</p>
<p>By the previous definition which uses $\phi(y-x)$ in the denominator, we would get limits like</p>
<p>$\lim_{y\to x}\frac{|y|-|x|}{|y-x|}$</p>
<p>which exists only for $x = 0$, even though our intuition tells us the shape is supposed to be the same everywhere. Any comments?</p>