Hadamard's product formula for the derivative - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-23T08:44:01Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/115891http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/115891/hadamards-product-formula-for-the-derivativeHadamard's product formula for the derivative RH2012-12-09T16:02:59Z2012-12-09T21:52:17Z
<p>Let $f$ be an entire function of order $ρ<\infty$. Assume that $f$ does not vanish identically on $\mathbb{C}$. Then, we know that $f$ has a Hadamard's product formula</p>
<p>$$ f(s) =e^{g(s)}s^{r}\prod _ {k=1}^{\infty}\frac{s _ {k}-s}{s _ {k}} e^{s/s _ k} $$</p>
<p>the integer $r$ is the order of vanishing of $f$ at $s=0$, the $s_{k}$ are the other zeros of $f$ listed with multiplicity, $g$ is a polynomial of degree at most $ρ$, and the product converges uniformly in bounded subsets of $ℂ$.
My question is how I can deduce directely a Hadamard's product formula for the derivative $f^′$ from the one of the function $f$. </p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/115891/hadamards-product-formula-for-the-derivative/115907#115907Answer by Carlo Beenakker for Hadamard's product formula for the derivative Carlo Beenakker2012-12-09T18:54:46Z2012-12-09T18:54:46Z<p>(1) It seems your formula for the Hadamard product is only correct for $\rho<2$; more generally the exponent of $e^{s/s_k}$ contains a power series in $s$ of order $q={\rm Int}\;\rho$; see for example Eq. 1 in these <A HREF="http://www.math.harvard.edu/~elkies/M259.06/prod.pdf" rel="nofollow">lecture notes</A>.</p>
<p>(2) To find a similar expression for $f'$, just take the logarithmic derivative:</p>
<p>$$ f'(s)/f(s)=g'(s)+r/s+\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{(s/s_k)^q}{s-s_k}.$$</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/115891/hadamards-product-formula-for-the-derivative/115920#115920Answer by Alexandre Eremenko for Hadamard's product formula for the derivative Alexandre Eremenko2012-12-09T20:40:16Z2012-12-09T21:52:17Z<p>The statement of the question must be corrected.
First, as Carlo pointed out, the Hadamard representation as in the question
is not valid for all functions of finite order.
The correct Hadamard representation is
$$f(z)=z^me^{P(z)}\prod_{n=1}^\infty \left( 1-\frac{z}{z_n}\right)
\exp\left(\frac{z}{z_n}+\ldots+\frac{1}{q}\left(\frac{z}{z_n}\right)^q\right).$$
Here $q$ is the genus of the function.</p>
<p>You have to specify whether you are talking about functions of finite
order (and thus finite genus) or functions of genus $1$.</p>
<p>Second, what does it mean "to deduce" a representation for the derivative?
The derivative of a function of finite order is of finite order, so there is
a similar representation for the derivative.
To "find" it means to find the zeros of derivative in terms of zeros
of the function, and to find the number $q$ and polynomial $P$.</p>
<p>Can you "deduce" the zeros of derivative of a polynomial in terms of zeros
of this polynomial?</p>
<p>Of course, by taking log and differentiating the Hadamard formula, you obtain a formula for $f'$
which Carlo wrote, but this is not the Hadamard representation of $f'$.</p>
<p>By the way, in the beginning of 20-s century, the question of whether the genus of $f$ is the same
as that of $f'$ was intensively discussed. If I remember correctly, it can be different.</p>