Determination of a symmetric convex region by parallel sections - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-21T11:10:41Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/11283http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/11283/determination-of-a-symmetric-convex-region-by-parallel-sectionsDetermination of a symmetric convex region by parallel sections0022010-01-10T02:36:02Z2010-04-22T02:08:08Z
<p>This question is partly inspired by a problem in Stewart's Calculus: "Find the area of the region enclosed by $y=x^2$ and $x=y^2$."</p>
<p>Suppose $f\colon [0,1]\to [0,1]$ is a convex increasing function that fixes 0 and 1. The graphs $y=f(x)$ and $x=f(y)$ enclose a convex region. To find its area, students will likely integrate the length of vertical sections: $f^{-1}(x)-f(x)$. They are unlikely to ask if two different functions can yield the same integrand. But I'll ask: </p>
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<p>Does $f^{-1}-f$ determine $f$? (Among all convex increasing functions that fix 0 and 1).</p>
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http://mathoverflow.net/questions/11283/determination-of-a-symmetric-convex-region-by-parallel-sections/11288#11288Answer by Anton Petrunin for Determination of a symmetric convex region by parallel sectionsAnton Petrunin2010-01-10T04:31:09Z2010-01-10T04:54:11Z<p>Yes.</p>
<p>Assume we have two distinct functions $f$ and $g$ such that $f^{-1}-f\equiv g^{-1}-g$.
Take a sequence $x_n=f(x_{n-1})$.
Clearly $f(x_n)-g(x_n)=0$ or $(-1)^n[f(x_n)-g(x_n)]$ has the same sign for all $n$. </p>
<p>Sinse $\int_0^1f=\int_0^1g$, there are two sequences $x_n$ and $y_n$ as above such that $f(x_n)=g(x_n)$, $f(y_n)=g(y_n)$ and say $(-1)^n[f(x)-g(x)]>0$ for any $x\in(x_n,y_n)$.
Note that $x_n,y_n\to 0$ and $\int_{x_n}^{y_n}|f-g|=const>0$.
It follows that $\limsup_{x\to0} |f(x)-g(x)|\to\infty$, a contradiction.</p>