Is this a "folk theorem" about analytic functions of a complex variable? - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-21T08:53:43Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/110552http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/110552/is-this-a-folk-theorem-about-analytic-functions-of-a-complex-variableIs this a "folk theorem" about analytic functions of a complex variable?Garabed Gulbenkian2012-10-24T15:56:37Z2012-10-24T19:07:29Z
<p>In a comment on question 110345 I made a claim that might be incorrect. I claimed that if
f(z) is a non-constant analytic function defined by a power series whose circle of convergence C
has a positive radius, then f(z) cannot be bounded at all points in the interior of C. But is
this really true? Or am I just imagining that I learned it somewhere. I could not come up with
any simple counter-examples. It sounds like some weird generalization of Liouville's theorem.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/110552/is-this-a-folk-theorem-about-analytic-functions-of-a-complex-variable/110555#110555Answer by quid for Is this a "folk theorem" about analytic functions of a complex variable?quid2012-10-24T16:09:48Z2012-10-24T16:09:48Z<p>This is not true. For a counterexample take </p>
<p><code>$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n^2} $$</code></p>
<p>The radius of convergence is one and this is bounded by </p>
<p><code>$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} = \pi^2/6 $$</code></p>
<p>You are likely confusing this with the <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maximum_modulus_principle" rel="nofollow">maximum modulus principle</a> saying that there must be no local maximu (in absolute value) in the interior if the function is nonconstant.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/110552/is-this-a-folk-theorem-about-analytic-functions-of-a-complex-variable/110575#110575Answer by Johannes Ebert for Is this a "folk theorem" about analytic functions of a complex variable?Johannes Ebert2012-10-24T19:07:29Z2012-10-24T19:07:29Z<p>You are probably misunderstanding the following folk theorem:
If $D $ is the convergence disc of a power series converging to $f$, then there must be some singularity of $f$ on $\partial D$. In other words, you cannot continue $f$ analytically onto a larger disc.
A counterexample that is more explicit than quids example is the power series expansion of $\sqrt{1+z}$ around $z=0$, which has convergence radius $1$. The singularity at $z=-1$ is not a pole.</p>
<p>A hint to the proof: if $D \subset U$ is a disc in the domain of definition of a holomorphic function $f$, then the Taylor expansion around the midpoint of $D$ converges in $D$.</p>