Are D_dR and D_st "potentially comparable"? - MathOverflow most recent 30 from http://mathoverflow.net2013-05-25T20:32:17Zhttp://mathoverflow.net/feeds/question/108391http://www.creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc/2.5/rdfhttp://mathoverflow.net/questions/108391/are-d-dr-and-d-st-potentially-comparableAre D_dR and D_st "potentially comparable"?Rebecca Bellovin2012-09-29T07:16:15Z2012-09-29T12:17:36Z
<p>Suppose we have a de Rham Galois representation $G_K\rightarrow GL(V)$ for some $p$-adic field $K$ and some finite dimensional vector space $V$ over <code>$\mathbf{Q}_p$</code>. Then it is a theorem that there is some finite extension $L/K$ such that $D_{dR}^L(V)\cong L\otimes_{L_0}D_{st}^L(V)$ (this is actually a corollary of the theorem that de Rham implies potentially semi-stable).</p>
<p>My question is whether I can still find such an extension $L/K$ without the assumption that the representation is de Rham. In other words, is there always some finite extension $L/K$ such that $dim_L D_{dR}^L(V)=dim_{L_0}D_{st}^L(V)$? I can't imagine that this is true, so what I'm really asking for is a counterexample.</p>
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/108391/are-d-dr-and-d-st-potentially-comparable/108401#108401Answer by Laurent Berger for Are D_dR and D_st "potentially comparable"?Laurent Berger2012-09-29T11:44:50Z2012-09-29T12:17:36Z<p>Actually, I think that Rebecca is right and that the answer is "no". Here's a sketch of the reason why.</p>
<p>Let $V$ be a $p$-adic representation. If $V$ is Hodge-Tate, then $D_{dR}(V) \neq 0$. So it's enough to find a HT representation such that $D_{st}^L (V) = 0$ for any $L$. Although I can't think of an explicit one, in my paper "Représentations potentiellement triangulines de dimension 2", with Gaëtan Chenevier, we prove the following theorem: if $X$ is the universal deformation space of some mod $p$ representation, and if $X_P$ is the subset of $X$ consisting of representations whose Sen polynomial is $P$, then the subset of $X_P$ consisting of potentially trianguline representations is a "thin subset" (i.e. most representations in $X_P$ are not potentially trianguline). It remains to observe that if $D_{st}^L (V) \neq 0$, then $V$ is potentially trianguline.</p>
<p>EDIT : I should have said that $V$ is of dimension 2 here.</p>