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Let $R$ be a commutative ring with identity and let $f \in R[x]$. There are well known characterizations for $f$ to be a nilpotent element of $R[x]$ or to have a multiplicative inverse in $R[x]$. Is there any characterization for idempotent elements in $R[x]$ ?

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4 Answers 4

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Let $f = a_0 + a_1x + ... + a_nx^n$ be idempotent. Then $a_0^2 = a_0$. Also $a_0a_1 + a_1a_0 = a_1$. Multiply by $a_0$ to get $a_0a_1 = 0$ which means that $a_1 = 0$ and by induction it is easy to show that $a_2 = ... = a_n = 0$ Therefore $f$ is idempotent iff its constant term is idempotent and other coefficients are zero.

Note that this is not true if we drop the commutativity condition. For example consider the polynomial $f(x) = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \\ \end{pmatrix} + \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \\ \end{pmatrix}x $ in $M_2(\Bbb{R})[x]$ which is clearly an idempotent polynomial.

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  • $\begingroup$ Maybe I'm just not seeing the obvious here, but why does $a_0 a_1 \implies a_1 = 0$ hold? Why can't $a_1$ be a nonzero element of $(1-a_0) R$ ? $\endgroup$ Aug 3, 2013 at 19:46
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    $\begingroup$ You have $a_0a_1 = 0$, now plug this back into $a_0a_1 + a_1a_0 = a_1$ (as long as the ring is commutative). This confused the heck out of me, too! $\endgroup$ Aug 3, 2013 at 20:22
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Here's a geometric argument. Idempotents in a (commutative) ring $R$ are naturally in bijection with clopen subsets $C\subseteq \operatorname{Spec} R$ (given a clopen subset, take the element of $T$ that is $1$ on $C$ and $0$ on its complement; every idempotent is of this form). Now $\mathbb{A}^1_k$ is connected for any field $k$, so for any scheme $X$, every fiber of the projection $X\times \mathbb{A}^1\to X$ is connected. Thus any clopen subset of $X\times \mathbb{A}^1$ is a union of fibers, and it follows easily that every clopen subset is of the form $C\times\mathbb{A}^1$ for $C\subseteq X$ clopen. If $X=\operatorname{Spec}(R)$, this says exactly that any idempotent in $R[x]$ must be a constant.

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Based on @user30230's great answer, but avoiding induction: Let $f=a+gx$, with $a\in R$ and $g\in R[x]$. Then $f=f^2$ yields $a+gx=a^2+2agx+g^2x^2$, so $a=a^2$ and $(1-2a)gx=g^2x^2$. Since $(1-2a)^2=1$, then $(1-2a)gx=\bigl[(1-2a)gx\bigr]^2$, so $(1-2a)gx=\bigl[(1-2a)g\bigr]^nx^n$ for all $n\geq1$. Thus, every power of $x$ divides $(1-2a)gx$, which forces $(1-2a)gx=0$. As $(1-2a)x$ is regular, it follows that $g=0$. Note that the argument also works for formal power series.

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  • $\begingroup$ Will not this question be more suited to stackexchange? When we see the answer it is clear that it is an exercise kind of problem rather than research level. Also the answer 4 years ago settled it. $\endgroup$ May 15, 2017 at 2:56
  • $\begingroup$ @PVanchinathan You should had written your commentary on the question instead. Please feel free to vote to close/migrate the question. $\endgroup$ May 15, 2017 at 2:58
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You might also want to have a look at Chapter 10 in Gilmer's Commutative Semigroup Rings (Chicago Lectures in Mathematics, 1984), where this question and related ones are given a very general and detailed treatment.

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