2
$\begingroup$

Let $G$ be a finite subgroup of $SL(n,\mathbb{C})$. Let $G$ act on $\mathbb{C}^{n}$ with the action induced by $SL(n,\mathbb{C})$ and the induced action of $G$ on the unit sphere $S^{2n-1}$ is free. My question is the following: is there a $N>0$ s.t.there exist a $G$-invariant holomorphic map $i_{N}$
$$i_{N}:\mathbb{C}^{n}\rightarrow \mathbb{C}^{N}$$ and $$i_{N}:(\mathbb{C}^{n}\setminus\left\{0\right\})/G\rightarrow \mathbb{C}^{N}$$ is a smooth embedding? If it is not the case in general, are there conditions that guarantee the existence of such a map?

Does the situation change if the ambient group is $U(n)$ instead of $SL(n,\mathbb{C})$?

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ The ambient group is $\text{U}(n)$ without loss of generality ($G$ preserves some inner product on $\mathbb{C}^n$ by the standard averaging argument). $\endgroup$ Jun 29, 2013 at 10:02
  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean exactly by "the origin is the only singular point" ? Does $G$ act freely on $S^{2n-1}$ ? $\endgroup$
    – BS.
    Jun 29, 2013 at 11:55
  • $\begingroup$ @BS: Yes, i assume that $G$ acts freely on $S^{2n-1}$. If in the question is not clear i assume the action of $G$ is linear (the one of the matrix group). $\endgroup$
    – Italo
    Jun 29, 2013 at 11:59

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

Yes. By Hilbert's theorem, the ring of $G$-invariant functions on $\mathbb C^n$ is finitely generated. Say the number of generators is $N$, then this gives a $G$-invariant holomorphic map to $\mathbb C^N$.

If one defines the quotient $\mathbb C^n/ G$ as the spectrum of this ring, then the map is clearly an embedding, and since, by computing the tangent spaces, the space being embedded is smooth, it is a smooth embedding. But if we take a complex-geometry perspective on what the quotient is, there is someting to check.

I claim this map is a smooth embedding. We will check this by checking that the map separates points and tangent vectors. If $P$ and $Q$ are two nonzero points of $\mathbb C^n$ that are not in the same $G$-orbit, then let $f$ be a function that vanishes at $P$ but not $Q$. The product of all the $G$-conjugates of $f$ is invariants, and separates $P$ and $Q$.

Similarly, if two tangent vectors at a nonzero point $P$ are distinct, we can find a function $f$ that vanishes at $P$ but not any $G$-conjugate point, and with a derivative that vanishes along one tangent vector but not the other. Here we use the fact that $G$ acts freely on $\mathbb C^n - 0$. Then multiplying all the $G$-conjugates of $f$ produces a function that vanishes on one vector but not the other. (Alternately, if the tangent vectors are in the same direction, we just need to find a map with nonvanishing derivative in that direction - the same construction works.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.